100 Top QTP Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

QTP Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1) By default, how many no of tables would be there in a script?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: B

2) Where can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Ans: B

3) To invoke the function which does not return any value, we can use
A. CALL function name
B. function name
C. Both A & B
D. None
Ans: A

4) The result of the checkpoints can be stored in a variable
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe. Depends on the type of checkpoint.
Ans: A

5) Parameterization generally involves
A. Data table
B. Random number
C. Environment
D. All of the Above
Ans: D

6) The file which is used for recovering from the run time errors has an extension
A. QRS
B. TSR
C. PNG
D. DAT
Ans: A

7) Among the following recording modes, which method uses both the objects and mouse coordinates
A. Normal
B. Low level
C. Analog
D. Both B & C
Ans: B

8) Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Properties
D. Action Call Properties
Ans: B

9) After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output parameter be found?
A. Local Data Sheet
B. Global Data Sheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Ans: C

10) If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don’t want to use it what you must do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Ans: C

11) Constant “2” with the reporter statement returns
A. Pass
B. Fail
C. Done
D. WARNING!
Ans: C

12) The standard timing delay for windows application is
A. 20 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. Infinite
D. 100 seconds
Ans: A

13) In VB Script functions, which one is false among the following
A. Variables must be declared before use
B. Variables may not be declared before use
C. Variables may be declared without data types
D. None
Ans: B

14) Method to To count the no of rows in a table
A. getrowcount
B. getlinecoun
C. Getcount
D. Count
Ans: A

15) By default, the all actions in QTP are
A. non – reusable
B. reusable
C. external
D. None
Ans: A

16) If the same object is present in the local and shared repository, QTP will refer which one?
A. Shared
B. Local
C. Both Shared and Local
D. Will give an Error
Ans: C

17) Which one is not true about “Call of action”
A. Tester can edit the script
B. Tester can’t edit the script
C. Tester can view the script
D. None
Ans: A

18) Checkpoint which is being used for verifying the web page with W3C standard is
A. Bitmap checkpoint
B. Standard checkpoint
C. Accessibility checkpoint
D. XML checkpoint
Ans: C

19) The file extension of Shared object repository file is
A. .MTR
B. .TSR
C. .QRS
D. None
Ans: B

20) The standard timing delay for web based application is
A. 20 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. Infinite
D. 100 seconds
Ans: B

21) Which scripting language is used in QTP ?
A.  Test Script Language (TSL)
B.  Java Script
C.  ASP
D.  VB Script
Ans: D

22) Does QTP support Data Driven Framework ?
A.  YES
B.  QTP supports only Modular Framework
C.  QTP is only Keyword Driven Framework
D.  No
Ans: A

23) Select the Browsers NOT Supported by QTP ?
A.  IE
B.  Netscape
C.  Safari
D.  AOL
Ans: C

24) “Active Screen” Technology in QTP gives
A.  Test Data
B.  Checkpoints
C.  Screenshots of Application Under Test (AUT)
D.  Object Repository
Ans: C

25) Does the “Information” Toolbar in QTP 10.x give the Syntax Errors if any in the script ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
C.  It gives syntax errors only related to functions
Ans: A

26) Method to To count the no of rows in a table
A.  getrowcount
B.  getlinecount
C.  Getcount
D.  Count
Ans: A

27) Select Case statement is end with
A.  end case
B.  exit case
C.  esac
D.  end select
Ans: D

28) Object Repository is available in 3 modes viz.
a) Per-Action Object Repository
b) Shared Object Repository,
c) Unshared Object Repository
A.  Both a & b
B.  Both a & c
C.  Both b & c
D.  Only a
Ans: A

29) What is the correct order of events in Test Script Creation ?
A. Plan, Record , Debug, Enhance
B.  Plan , Record , Enhance , Debug
C.  Record, Debug , Plan , Enhance
D.  Record, Enhance, Debug , Plan
Ans: B

30) Which one is the default data type of QTP
A.  integer
B.  String
C.  Variant
D.  Double
Ans: B

31) To use the non-standard windows object, we can go for
A.  Object spy
B.  Virtual objects
C.  Object identification
D.  None
Ans: B

32) Select INVALID Checkpoint Type from the following
A.  Page Checkpoint
B.  Accessibility Checkpoint
C.  Object Checkpoint
D.  XML Checkpoint
Ans: C

33) To terminate the script execution, during running, QTP uses
A.  Exit run
B.  Stop run
C.  Quit
D.  None
Ans: A

34) BITMAP Checkpoint checks the property values of an image ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

35) Synchronization Point is used :-
A.  To delay QTP execution until Application Under Test (AUT) attains certain status
B.  To synchronize execution in multiple instances of QTP
C.  To synchronize per action and shared object repositories
Ans: A

36) Do statement always end with
A.  end while
B.  End do
C.  Wend
D.  Loop
Ans: D

37) By default a Datable contains :-
A.  One Action Sheet and One Global Sheet
B.  Two Global Sheets
C.  Two Action Sheets
D.  Two Action Sheets and One Global Sheet
Ans: A

38) Results Table (results of a test) is available in which following locations ?
A.  Test Script Folder
B.  Test Configuration Folder
C.  Test Results Folder
D.  Test Functions Folder
Ans: C

39) *.mts file contains :-
A.  Sequence and iterations of Actions to be executed
B.  User created library functions
C.  Per-Action Object Repository Files
D.  Parameter used in Actions
Ans: A

40) The feature of selecting different values of test data at run-time is called
A.  Synchronization
B.  Parameterization
C.  Smart Identification
D.  Transaction
Ans: B

41) Can Checkpoints be parameterized ?
A. YES
B.  NO
C.  Maybe. Depends on the type of checkpoints
Ans:  A

42) Can Test-Data in “Action Sheet” of Data Table be used from one action to another ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

43) Text Output Value -
a) outputs property value of any object
b) outputs text string appearing in AUT
c) outputs part of displayed text appearing in AUT
A. only a
B. only b
C.  only c
D.  both b & c
Ans: D

44) Select the valid types of Actions in QTP
a) Nested Actions
b) Shared Actions
c) External Actions
d) Reusable Actions
A.  both b & c
B.  both b & d
C.  both a & d
D.  both a & c
Ans: C

45) Can Actions inserted as “Call to Action” be modified by the test engineer?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

46) Action Sheet (in Data Table) of an action inserted as “Copy of an Action” is editable only from the test from which they were created ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

47) Action Iteration is :-
A.  Number of times action would be executed every global iteration
B.  Number of time action would be executed in entire test execution
C.  Number of times all actions would be executed globally.
Ans: A

48) Choose the valid syntax to call Action 1 ( from Action 0) with input parameter “action_in” and store the output in a variable “MyVariable”
A.  RunAction 'Action1', oneIteration, Parameter(“action_in”), MyVariable
B.  RunAction 'Action0', oneIteration, Parameter(“action_in”), MyVariable
C.  RunAction 'Action1', oneIteration, MyVariable , Parameter(“action_in”)
D.  RunAction 'Action0', oneIteration, MyVariable , Parameter(“action_in
Ans: A

49) Can we use all standard Microsoft Excel features like Formulae, Formatting , Sorting etc in QTP DataTable ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

50) “Call to Copy” of an action can be inserted only for reusable actions ?
A.  NO
B.  YES
Ans: A

51) Parameterization of all Test data in a script can be done using
A.  Object Repository Manager
B.  Virtual Object Manager
C.  Data Driver
D.  Variable Driver
Ans: C

52) Are Nested Actions Call to one Action from Another ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans:  A

53) Is the Shared ( Global ) Action Repository the default repository in QTP ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

54) In a Per – Action (Local) Repository Action 1 and Action 2 in the same test script would have different object repositories?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

55) The Share Action Repository is preferable when
A.  The Application Under Test is Dynamic with respect time
B.  The Application Under Test is Internet Environment
C.  The Application Under Test is Static
Ans: A

56) What is *.tsr file in QTP ?
A.  Object Repository Files
B.  VB Actions Files
C.  QTP Action Files
D.  Stores Test Data
Ans: A

57) Object Spy can be used to
A.  identify the Objects that can be identified by QTP
B.  identify the properties used for identification of objects
C.  identify the properties used for identification of objects in per-action repository
D.  identify the properties used for identification of objects in global action repository
Ans: B

58) Are Assistive properties used when mandatory properties are enough to identify an object ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

59) Are Ordinal Identifiers used when Mandatory and Assistive properties used by QTP are not enough to identify Object?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

60) Select the Invalid type of Ordinal Identifiers Used by QTP
A.  Index Based
B.  Location based
C.  Creation Time
D.  Time Based
Ans: D

61) Does Index based ordinal identifier indicates the order in which the object appears in the parent window frame or dialog box relative to other objects?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

62) Does Location based ordinal identifier indicates the order in which object appears in the application code relative to other objects?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

63) Select the environments in which Creation Time ordinal identifier is used
A.  SAP
B.  Oracle
C.  Web
D.  Java
Ans: C

64) When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A.  The test results
B.  The object descriptions
C.  The action names in the test
D.  The logical names in the test
Ans: B

65) For identification of any object the choice of ordinal identifier selected can be modified in the Object Identification Window?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

66) The Index Property value of Occurrence of the first object in source code is
A.  1
B.  a
C.  2
D.  0
Ans: D

67) Is Smart Identification is invoked when QTP cannot recognize an object using mandatory , assistive and ordinal properties ?
A.  Yes
B.  No
C.  Only in Web Environments
Ans: A

68) Select the type of properties used for Smart Identification
A.  Mandatory Properties
B.  Assistive Properties
C.  Base Filter Properties
D.  Smart Properties
Ans: C

69) Utility to measure the timing delays between transactions, we use
A.  synchronization
B.  sync
C.  services
D.  wait
Ans: C

70) Select the Invalid recording modes supported by QTP
A.  Low-level Recording mode
B.  Normal recording mode
C.  High-level Recording mode
D.  Analog recording mode
Ans: C

71) What does a breakpoint do?
A.  Stops test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
B.  Stops test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
C.  Pauses test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
D.  Pauses test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
Ans: D

72) Does Analog Recording mode, records exact mouse and keyboard operations ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

73) The RunAnalog function is used to run
A.  Tracks
B.  Functions
C.  Analog Functions
D.  Analog settings
Ans: A

74) Consider the QTP Script below
Window(“Calculator”).WinObject(“8”).Click 21,6
Window(“Calculator”).WinObject(“WinObject”).Click 14,13
In which mode is the script recorded ?
A. Analog Recording mode
B. Context Sensitive mode
C. Low Level Recording mode
Ans: C

75) Virtual Objects are used when:-
A.  The objects do not exist in the Application Under Test
B.  Standard Objects cannot be recorded due to problems that arise during recording
C.  There are many objects of the same class in the Application Under Test
Ans: B

76) Consider the QTP Script below:-
On Error Resume Next
What does the above line of code do ?
A. If an error occurs in the current line of script under execution , QTP proceeds ahead to the next step
B. If an error occurs in the current iteration in script execution , QTP proceeds ahead to next iteration
Ans: A

77) Which of the following is an example of a missing resource?
A.  An object
B.  Run Results
C.  A Regular Action
D.  An External Action
Ans: D

78) To enter the non-executable statement in QTP , we use
A.  single quotes
B.  Rem
C.  double quotes
D.  Com
Ans: A

79) Select the tabs that does not appear in the debug view of QTP -
A.  Watch Expressions
B.  Variables
C.  Command
D.  Break-point Analyzer
Ans: D

80) The Generate Script Function ( used for transferring script to different location ) appears in which of the following Menu Windows :-
A.  Object Identification
B.  Test Settings
C.  Tools/Options
D.  All of the Above
Ans: D

81) Which icon represents Optional Steps in the Keyword View ?
A.  Question Mark
B.  Exclamation Mark
C.  Astrix Mark
D.  Dollar Mark
Ans: A

82) Choose the correct order of operations done while setting a new recovery scenario
A.  Set the Trigger Event , Set The Recovery Operation , Set the Post – Run Recovery Option
B.  Set The Recovery Operation ,Set the Trigger Event, Set the Post – Run Recovery Option
C.  Set the Post – Run Recovery Option, Set the Trigger Event , Set The Recovery Operation
Ans: A

83) Can a single test script have multiple Recover Scenarios?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

84) Is Reporter.ReportEvent Library Function is used to display images in test results ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

85) Can User-Defined Environment Variables be used outside the QTP Environment ?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

86) Will Test Results be automatically be stored in Quality Center (QC) if we run the test script from QC
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

87) Can QTP be integrated with Test Director (TD)?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: A

88) Select the tools that can NOT be integrated with QTP :-
A.  Quality Center
B.  Winrunner
C.  Silk Runner
D.  Test Director
Ans: C

89) Select valid syntax of CallFuncEx command
A.  CallFuncEx ModulePath, Function, RunMinimized, CloseApp [ , Arguments ]
B.  CallFuncEx Function, ModulePath, RunMinimized, CloseApp [ , Arguments ]
C.  CallFuncEx ModulePath, Function, CloseApp [ , Arguments ] ,RunMinimized
D.  CallFuncEx Function ,ModulePath, CloseApp [ , Arguments ] , RunMinimized
Ans: A

90) Can multiple instances/processes/sessions/windows of QTP be run at the same time?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans: B

91) Can QTP run on multiple instances/processes/sessions/windows of Application under Test?
A.  YES
B.  NO
Ans:  B

92) Select the Invalid syntax to access data in Data Table via VB Scripting :-
A.  DataTable(“Column Name”, dtGlobalSheet)
B.  DataTable(“Column Name”, dtLocalSheet)
C.  DataTable(Column ID, Sheet ID)
D.  DataTable(Column Name, Sheet ID)
Ans: D

93) Consider following piece of code
on error resume next
val=DataTable("ParamName",dtGlobalSheet)
if err.number 1 then
'Parameter does not exist
else
'Parameter exists
end if
Code highlighted above is not logically correct. Select the correct code from the options Provided
A.  if err.number 2 then
B.  if err.number val then
C.  if err.number “ParamName” then
D.  if err.number 0 then
Ans: D

94) Does SetTOProperty change the property of an object stored in the Object Repository such that, next time the object is referred to in the test script the updated property of the object is used?
A.  Yes
B.  No
Ans: B

95) Select the function used to set property of a run – time object :-
A.  SetTOProperty
B.  GetToProperty
C.  SetRoProperty
D.  Cannot be set
Ans: D

96) Does GetROProperty return the property of a run-time object?
A.  Yes
B.  No
Ans: A

97) Object Spy is used to check :-
A.  Test-Time Properties of an Object
B.  Test-time Properties and Test-Time Methods of an Object
C.  Run-time Properties and Run –Time Methods of an Object
D.  Test - time and Run-time Object Properties and Test-time and Run – time Object Methods
Ans: D

98) Can Descriptive Programming be used to create Test Scripts for an application without actually recording on it ?
A.  Yes
b.  No
Ans: A

99) Consider following line of code :-
StartURL = "http://www.yahoo.com"
Set IE = CreateObject("InternetExplorer ")
IE.Visible = True
IE.Navigate StartURL
Set IE = Nothing
The highlighted line of code is not syntactically correct. Select the correct line of code
A. Set IE = CreateObject('InternetExplorer.Shell')
B. Set IE = CreateObject('InternetExplorer.Run')
C.  Set IE = CreateObject('InternetExplorer.Application')
D.  Set IE = CreateObject('InternetExplorer.Script')
Ans: C

100) Select the syntactically correct lines of codes :-
A.  Browser(creationtime=4).Page(title=Editorial CompanySearch).Link(text=Codes).
B.  Browser(creationtime:=4).Page(title:=Editorial CompanySearch).Link(text:=Codes).
C.  Browser('creationtime:=4').Page('title:=Editorial CompanySearch').Link('text:=Codes').Click
D.  Browser('creationtime=4').Page('title=Editorial CompanySearch').Link('text=Codes').Click
Ans: C

106 Top Manual Testing Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Manual Testing Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

4. Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete each task called as Project Scheduling

5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class.?

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases

8. Exhaustive Testing is

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

11. A Project risk includes which of the following

12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

18. What can static analysis NOT find?

19. Incidents would not be raised against:

20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Ans:  ‘B’

22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
Ans:  ‘A’

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :-
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Ans:  ‘B’

24. Static analysis is best described as:
A. The analysis of batch programs.
B. The reviewing of test plans.
C. The analysis of program code.
D. The use of black box testing.
Ans:  ‘C’

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Ans:  ‘C’

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans:  ‘A’

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans:  ‘B’

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A. operating systems
B. test documentation
C. live data
D. user requirement document
Ans:  ‘C’

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans:  ‘C’

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19
Ans:  ‘C’


31. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceability Matrix
Ans:  D

32. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Ans:  B

33. Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the stability of a process.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

34. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans: B

35. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans:  A

36. Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

37. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy
A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans:  B

38. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
Ans:  A

39. The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as
A. Delivery Document
B. Baseline Document
C. Checklist
Ans:  B

40. What are the Testing Levels?
A. Unit Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing and Acceptance Testing.
D. All the above
Ans:  D

41. Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

42. A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
Ans:  B

43. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans:  C

44. Variance from product specifications is called?
A. Report
B. Requirement
C. Defect
Ans:  C

45. Verification is
A. Process based
B. Product based
Ans:  A

46. White box testing is not called as___________
A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. OPen box testing
D. Clear box testing
Ans:  B

47. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
Ans:  A

48. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
Ans:  B

49. Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

50. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. Unit Testing
B. Blackbox testing
C. White box Testing
D. Regression testing
Ans:  C

51. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

52.This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
Ans:  C

53. Phase Definition. It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 2
C. None
Ans:  B

54. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
Ans:  A

55. Acceptance testing is known as
A. Beta Testing
B. Greybox testing
C. Test Automation
D. White box testing
Ans:  A

56. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
Ans:  A

57. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
A. Black Box testing
B. White Box testing
Ans:  A

58. It measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process, It applies for particular product & Deals with the product.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans:  D

59. What are the Types of Integration Testing?
A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
Ans:  D

60. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

61. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
Ans:  B

62. Which is non-functional software testing?
A. Unit Testing
B. Block box testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Regression testing
Ans:  C

63. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?
A. Delivery Process
B. Testing Process
C. Software Process
Ans:  C

64. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Retesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Ans:  A

65. Which is Black-Box Testing method?
A. equivalence partitioning
B. code coverage
C. fault injection
Ans:  A

66. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

67. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups(stratA..
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

68. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.
Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans:  B

69. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans:  A

70. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
Ans:  B

71. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

72. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting.
Ans:  C

73. An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
A. Process Metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test Metric
Ans:  C

74. Alpha testing will be done at,
A. User's site
B. Developers' site
Ans:  B

75. SPICE Means
A. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
B. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
C. Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
D. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
Ans:  A

76. Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
A. SDLC
B. STLC
C. SQLC
D. BLC
Ans:  B

77. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.
A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans:  A

78. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called?
A. Confirmation Management
B. Confederation Mangement
C. Configuration Management
D. Compartability Management
Ans:  C

79. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

80. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as
A. Block box Testing
B. White box Testing
C. Grey Box Testing
D. Closed Box Testing
Ans:  B

81. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system?
A. Usability Testing
B. User Acceptance Testing
C. Alpha Testing
D. Beta Testing.
Ans:  A

82. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. WRONG
B. MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All the above
Ans:  D

83. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
A. Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
B. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
C. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
Ans:  B

84. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after the system Testing called as
A. Functional Testing
B. Stress/Load Testing
C. Recovery Testing
D. Integration Testing
Ans:  B

85. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

86. Beta testing will be done by
A. Developer
B. User
C. Tester
Ans:  B

87. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

88. Integration, It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 2
D. None
Ans:  B

89. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

90. Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting development activities itself
A. Water falls model
B. Spiral Model
C. V-model
D. Linear model
Ans:  C

91. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
Ans:  A

92. Check Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because it differentiates between two extremes.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

93. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation testing.
A. False
B. True
Ans:  B

94. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a project.
A. False
B. True
Ans:  B

95. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
Ans:  A

96. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

97. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new changes
A. Recursive testing
B. Whitebox testing
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Ans:  D

98. Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level 2
Ans:  C

99. AdHoc testing is a part of
A. Unit Testing
B. Regression Tesing
C. Exploratory Testing
D. Performance Testing
Ans:  C

100. Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  A

101. ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the application will run smoothly
A. Test Bed
B. Checkpoint
C. Code Walk through
D. Checklist
Ans:  A

102. TQM represents
A. Tool Quality Management
B. Test Quality Manager
C. Total Quality Management
D. Total Quality Manager
Ans:  C

103. Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
A. CMM Level 2
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level5
Ans:  D

104. Unit Testing will be done by
A. Testers
B. End Users
C. Customer
D. Developers
Ans:  D

105. Beta testing will be done at
A. User place
B. Developers place
Ans:  A

106. A Plan to overcome the risk called as
A. Migration Plan
B. Master plan
C. Maintenance plan
D. Mitigation Plan
Ans:  D

80 Top Oracle DBA Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Oracle DBA Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.SNAPSHOT is used for_____ .
A. Synonym,
B. Table space,
c System server,
d Dynamic data replication
Ans : D

2.We can create SNAPSHOTLOG for[DBA]
A. Simple snapshots,
B. Complex snapshots,
C. Both A & B,
D. Neither A nor B
Ans : A

3.Transactions per rollback segment is derived from[DBA]
A. Db_Block_Buffers,
B. Processes,
C. Shared_Pool_Size,
D. None of the above
Ans : B

4.ENQUEUE resources parameter information is derived from[DBA]
A. Processes or DDL_LOCKS and DML_LOCKS,
B. LOG_BUFFER,
C. DB__BLOCK_SIZE..
Ans : A

5.LGWR process writes information into
A. Database files,
B. Control files,
C. Redolog files,
D. All the above.
Ans : C

6.SET TRANSACTION USE ROLLBACK SEGMENT is used to create user objects in a particular Tablespace
A. True,
B. False
Ans : False

7.Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called
A. Redolog file,
B. Data file,
C. Control file,
D. All of the above.
Ans : C

8.These following parameters are optional in init.ora parameter file DB_BLOCK_SIZE, PROCESSES
A. True,
B. False
Ans : False

10.Constraints cannot be exported through EXPORT command
A. True,
B. False
Ans : B

11.It is very difficult to grant and manage common privileges needed by different groups of database users using the roles
A. True,
B. False
Ans : B

12.What is difference between a DIALOG WINDOW and a DOCUMENT WINDOW regarding moving the window with respect to the application window
A. Both windows behave the same way as far as moving the window is concerneD.
B. A document window can be moved outside the application window while a dialog window cannot be moved
C. A dialog window can be moved outside the application window while a document window cannot be moved
Ans : C

13.What is the difference between a MESSAGEBOX and an ALERT
A. A messagebox can be used only by the system and cannot be used in user application while an alert can be used in user application also.
B. A alert can be used only by the system and cannot be use din user application while an messagebox can be used in user application also.
C. An alert requires an response from the userwhile a messagebox just flashes a message
and only requires an acknowledment from the user
D. An message box requires an response from the userwhile a alert just flashes a message an only
requires an acknowledment from the user
Ans : C

14.Which of the following is not an reason for the fact that most of the processing is done at the server ?
A. To reduce network traffiC.
B. For application sharing,
C. To implement business rules centrally,
D. None of the above
Ans : D

15.Can a DIALOG WINDOW have scroll bar attached to it ?
A. Yes,
B. No
Ans : B

16.Which of the following is not an advantage of GUI systems ?
A. Intuitive and easy to use.,
B. GUI’s can display multiple applications in multiple windows
C. GUI’s provide more user interface objects for a developer
D. None of the above
Ans: D

17.What is the difference between a LIST BOX and a COMBO BOX ?
A. In the list box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a combo box the user can type in value which is not in the list
B. A list box is a data entry area while a combo box can be used only for control purposes
C. In a combo box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a list box the
Ans: A

18.When do you get a .PLL extension ?
A. Save Library file
B. Generate Library file
C. Run Library file
D. None of the above
Ans : A

19.In a CLIENT/SERVER environment , which of the following would not be done at the client ?
A. User interface part,
B. Data validation at entry line,
C. Responding to user events,
D. None of the above
Ans : D

20.Why is it better to use an INTEGRITY CONSTRAINT to validate data in a table than to use a STORED
PROCEDURE ?
A. Because an integrity constraint is automatically checked while data is inserted into or updated in a table while a stored procedure has to be specifically invoked
B. Because the stored procedure occupies more space in the database than a integrity constraint definition
C. Because a stored procedure creates more network traffic than a integrity constraint definition
Ans : A

21.Which of the following is not an advantage of a client/server model ?
A. A client/server model allows centralised control of data and centralised implementation of business rules.
B. A client/server model increases developer;s productivity
C. A client/server model is suitable for all applications
D. None of the above.
Ans : C

22.What does DLL stands for ?
A. Dynamic Language Library
B. Dynamic Link Library
C. Dynamic Load Library
D. None of the above
Ans : B

23.POST-BLOCK trigger is a
A. Navigational trigger
B. Key trigger
C. Transactional trigger
D. None of the above
Ans : A

24.You can prepare for these Oracle employment qualification test multiple choice questions. People usually get similar questions in the regular oracle placement papers. Check out the answers given.
The system variable that records the select statement that SQL * FORMS most recently used
to populate a block is
A. SYSTEM.LAST_RECORD
B. SYSTEM.CURSOR_RECORD
C. SYSTEM.CURSOR_FIELD
D. SYSTEM.LAST_QUERY
Ans: D

25.Which of the following is TRUE for the ENFORCE KEY field
1. ENFORCE KEY field characterstic indicates the source of the value that SQL*FORMS uses to populate the field
2. A field with the ENFORCE KEY characterstic should have the INPUT ALLOWED charaterstic turned off
A. Only 1 is TRUE
B. Only 2 is TRUE
C. Both 1 and 2 are TRUE
D. Both 1 and 2 are FALSE
Ans : A

26.What is the maximum size of the page ?
A. Characters wide & 265 characters length
B. Characters wide & 265 characters length
C. Characters wide & 80 characters length
D. None of the above
Ans : B

27.A FORM is madeup of which of the following objects
A. block, fields only,
B. blocks, fields, pages only,
C. blocks, fields, pages, triggers and form level procedures,
D. Only blocks.
Ans : C

28.For the following statements which is true
1. Page is an object owned by a form
2. Pages are a collection of display information such as constant text and graphics.
A. Only 1 is TRUE
B. Only 2 is TRUE
C. Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
D. Both are FALSE
Ans : B

29.The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the Database is
A. Post
B. Post form
C. Commit form
D. None of the above
Ans : C

30.Which of the following is TRUE for the SYSTEM VARIABLE $$date$$
A. Can be assigned to a global variable
B. Can be assigned to any field only during design time
C. Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time
D. None of the above
Ans : B

31.Which of the following packaged procedure is UNRESTRICTED ?
A. CALL_INPUT,
B. CLEAR_BLOCK,
C. EXECUTE_QUERY,
D.  USER_EXIT
Ans : D

32. Identify the RESTRICTED packaged procedure from the following
A. USER_EXIT,
B. MESSAGE,
C. BREAK,
D. EXIT_FORM
Ans : D

32.What is SQL*FORMS
A. SQL*FORMS is a 4GL tool for developing & executing Oracle based interactive applications.
B. SQL*FORMS is a 3GL tool for connecting to the Database.
C. SQL*FORMS is a reporting tool
D. None of the above.
Ans : A

33.Name the two files that are created when you generate a form using Forms 3.0
A. FMB & FMX,
B. FMR & FDX,
C. INP & FRM,
D. None of the above
Ans : C

34.Which of the folowing is TRUE for a ERASE packaged procedure
1. ERASE removes an indicated Global variable & releases the memory associated with it
2. ERASE is used to remove a field from a page
A. Only 1 is TRUE
B. Only 2 is TRUE
C. Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
D. Both 1 & 2 are FALSE
Ans : A

35.All datafiles related to a Tablespace are removed when the Tablespace is dropped
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : B

36.Size of Tablespace can be increased by
A. Increasing the size of one of the Datafiles
B. Adding one or more Datafiles
C. Cannot be increased
D. None of the above
Ans : B

37.Multiple Tablespaces can share a single datafile
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : B

38.A set of Dictionary tables are created
A. Once for the Entire Database
B. Every time a user is created
C. Every time a Tablespace is created
D. None of the above
Ans : A

39.Datadictionary can span across multiple Tablespaces
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : B

40.What is a DATABLOCK
A. Set of Extents
B. Set of Segments
C. Smallest Database storage unit
D. None of the above
Ans : C

41.Can an Integrity Constraint be enforced on a table if some existing table data does not satisfy the constraint
A. Yes
B. No
Ans : B

42. A column defined as PRIMARY KEY can have NULL’s
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : B

43. A Transaction ends
A. Only when it is Committed
B. Only when it is Rolledback
C. When it is Committed or Rolledback
D. None of the above
Ans : C

44. A Database Procedure is stored in the Database
A. In compiled form
B. As source code
C. Both A & B
D. Not stored
Ans : C

45.A database trigger doesnot apply to data loaded before the definition of the trigger
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : A

46.Dedicated server configuration is
A. One server process – Many user processes
B. Many server processes – One user process
C. One server process – One user process
D. Many server processes – Many user processes
Ans : C

47. Which of the following does not affect the size of the SGA
A. Database buffer
B. Redolog buffer
C. Stored procedure
D. Shared pool
Ans : C

48. What does a COMMIT statement do to a CURSOR
A. Open the Cursor
B. Fetch the Cursor
C. Close the Cursor
D. None of the above
Ans : D

49.Which of the following is TRUE
1. Host variables are declared anywhere in the program
2. Host variables are declared in the DECLARE section
A. Only 1 is TRUE
B. Only 2 is TRUE
C. Both 1 & 2are TRUE
D. Both are FALSE
Ans : B

50. Which of the following is NOT VALID is PL/SQL
A. Bool boolean;
B. NUM1, NUM2 number;
C. deptname dept.dname%type;
D. date1 date := sysdate
Ans : B

51. GET_BLOCK property is a
A. Restricted procedure
B. Unrestricted procedure
C. Library function
D. None of the above
Ans : D

52.What will be the value of svar after the execution ?
A. Error
B. 10
C. 5
D. None of the above
Ans : A

53.Which of the following is not correct about an Exception ?
A. Raised automatically / Explicitly in response to an ORACLE_ERROR
B. An exception will be raised when an error occurs in that block
C. Process terminates after completion of error sequence.
D. A Procedure or Sequence of statements may be processeD.
Ans : C

54.Which of the following is not correct about User_Defined Exceptions ?
A. Must be declared
B. Must be raised explicitly
C. Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error
D. None of the above
Ans : C

55.A Stored Procedure is a
A. Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL statements to perform specific function
B. Stored in compiled form in the database
C. Can be called from all client environmets
D. All of the above
Ans : D

56.Which of the following statement is false
A. Any procedure can raise an error and return an user message and error number
B. Error number ranging from 20000 to 20999 are reserved for user defined messages
C. Oracle checks Uniqueness of User defined errors
D. Raise_Application_error is used for raising an user defined error.
Ans : C

57.Is it possible to open a cursor which is in a Package in another procedure ?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans : A

58.Is it possible to use Transactional control statements in Database Triggers?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans : B

59.Is it possible to Enable or Disable a Database trigger ?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans : A

60.PL/SQL supports datatype(s)
A. Scalar datatype
B. Composite datatype
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Ans C

61.Find the ODD datatype out
A. VARCHAR2
B. RECORD
C. BOOLEAN
D. RAW
Ans : B

62.Which of the following is not correct about the “TABLE” datatype ?
A. Can contain any no of columns
B. Simulates a One-dimensional array of unlimited size
C. Column datatype of any Scalar type
D. None of the above
Ans : A

63. Find the ODD one out of the following
A. OPEN
B. CLOSE
C. INSERT
D. FETCH
Ans C

64. Which of the following is not correct about Cursor ?
A. Cursor is a named Private SQL area
B. Cursor holds temporary results
C. Cursor is used for retrieving multiple rows
D. SQL uses implicit Cursors to retrieve rows
Ans : B

65. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL ?
A. Select … into
B. Update
C. Create
D. Delete
Ans : C

67. What is the Result of the following ‘VIK’NULL’RAM’ ?
A. Error
B. VIK RAM
C. VIKRAM
D. NULL
Ans : C

68.A CONTROL BLOCK can sometimes refer to a BASETABLE ?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans : B

69. Is it possible to modify a Datatype of a column when column contains data ?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B

70. Which of the following is not correct about a View ?
A. To protect some of the columns of a table from other users
B. Ocuupies data storage space
C. To hide complexity of a query
D. To hide complexity of a calculations
Ans : B

71. Which is not part of the Data Definiton Language ?
A. CREATE
B. ALTER
C. ALTER SESSION
Ans : C

72. List of Values (LOV) supports
A. Single column
B. Multi column
C. Single or Multi column
D. None of the above
Ans : C

73. If an UNIQUE KEY constraint on DATE column is created, will it accept the rows that are inserted with
SYSDATE ?
A. Will
B. Won’t
Ans : B

74. What are the different events in Triggers ?
A. Define, Create
B. Drop, Comment
C. Insert, Update, Delete
D. All of the above
Ans : C

75. What built-in subprogram is used to manipulate images in image items ?
A. Zoom_out
B. Zoom_in’
C. Image_zoom
D. Zoom_image
Ans : C

76. Can we pass RECORD GROUP between FORMS ?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans : A

77. SHOW_ALERT function returns
A. Boolean
B. Number
C. Character
D. None of the above
Ans : B

78. What SYSTEM VARIABLE is used to refer DATABASE TIME ?
A. $$dbtime$$
B. $$time$$
C. $$datetime$$
D. None of the above
Ans : A

79. SYSTEM.EFFECTIVE.DATE varaible is
A. Read only
B. Read & Write
C. Write only
D. None of the above
Ans : C

80. How can you CALL Reports from Forms4.0 ?
A. Run_Report built_in
B. Call_Report built_in
C. Run_Product built_in
D. Call_Product built_in
Ans : C