140 Top ASP.Net Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

ASP.Net Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Choose the form in which Postback occur
A.  HTMLForms
B.  Webforms
C.  Winforms
Ans: Webforms

2. Web.config file is used...
A.  Configures the time that the server-side codebehind module is called
B.  To store the global information and variable definitions for the application
C.  To configure the web server
D.  To configure the web browser
Ans: To store the global information and variable definitions for the application

3. Which of the following object is not an ASP component?
A.  LinkCounter
B.  Counter
C.  AdRotator
D.  File Access
Ans: LinkCounter

4. The first event triggers in an aspx page is.
A.  Page_Init()
B.  Page_Load()
C.  Page_click()
Ans: Page_Init()

5. Difference between Response.Write() andResponse.Output.Write().
A.  Response.Output.Write() allows you to buffer output
B.  Response.Output.Write() allows you to write formatted output
C.  Response.Output.Write() allows you to flush output
D.  Response.Output.Write() allows you to stream output
Ans: Response.Output.Write() allows you to write formatted output

6. Which of the following method must be overridden in a custom control?
A.  The Paint() method
B.  The Control_Build() method
C.  The default constructor
D.  The Render() method
Ans: The Render() method

7. How do we create a FileSystemObject?
A.  Server.CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject")
B.  Create("FileSystemObject")
C.  Create Object:"Scripting.FileSystemObject"
D.  Server.CreateObject("FileSystemObject")
Ans: Server.CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject")

8. Which of the following tool is used to manage the GAC?
A.  RegSvr.exe
B.  GacUtil.exe
C.  GacSvr32.exe
D.  GacMgr.exe
Ans: GacUtil.exe

9. What class does the ASP.NET Web Form class inherit from by default?
A.  System.Web.UI.Page
B.  System.Web.UI.Form
C.  System.Web.GUI.Page
D.  System.Web.Form
Ans: System.Web.UI.Page

10. We can manage states in asp.net application using
A.  Session Objects
B.  Application Objects
C.  Viewstate
D.  All of the above
Ans: All of the above

11. Attribute must be set on a validator control for the validation to work.
A.  ControlToValidate
B.  ControlToBind
C.  ValidateControl
D.  Validate
Ans: ControlToValidate

12. Caching type supported by ASP.Net
A.  Output Caching
B.  DataCaching
C.  a and b
D.  none of the above
Ans: a and b

13. What is used to validate complex string patterns like an e-mail address?
A.  Extended expressions
B.  Basic expressions
C.  Regular expressions
D.  Irregular expressions
Ans: Regular expressions

14. File extension used for ASP.NET files.
A.  .Web
B.  .ASP
C.  .ASPX
D.  None of the above
Ans: .ASP

15. An alternative way of displaying text on web page using
A.  asp:label
B.  asp:listitem
C.  asp:button
Ans: asp:label

16. Why is Global.asax is used?
A.  Declare Global variables
B.  Implement application and session level events
C.  No use
Ans: Implement application and session level events

17. Which of the following is not a member of ADODBCommand object?
A.  ExecuteScalar
B.  ExecuteStream
C.  Open
D.  ExecuteReader
Ans: Open

18. Which DLL translate XML to SQL in IIS?
A.  SQLISAPI.dll
B.  SQLXML.dll
C.  LISXML.dll
D.  SQLIIS.dll
Ans: SQLISAPI.dll

19. Default Session data is stored in ASP.Net.
A.  StateServer
B.  Session Object
C.  InProcess
D.  all of the above
Ans: InProcess

20. Default scripting language in ASP.
A.  EcmaScript
B.  VBScript
C.  PERL
D.  JavaScript
Ans: VBScript

21. How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the "post" method?
A.  Request.QueryString
B.  Request.Form
C.  Response.write
D.  Response.writeln
Ans: Request.Form

22. Which object can help you maintain data across users?
A.  Application object
B.  Session object
C.  Response object
D.  Server object
Ans: Application object

23. Which of the following ASP.NET object encapsulates the state of the client?
A.  Session object
B.  Application object
C.  Response object
D.  Server object
Ans: Session object

24. Which of the following object is used along with application object in order to ensure that only one process accesses a variable at a time?
A.  Synchronize
B.  Synchronize()
C.  ThreadLock
D.  Lock()
Ans: Synchronize()

25. Which of the following control is used to validate that two fields are equal?
A.  RegularExpressionValidator
B.  CompareValidator
C.  equals() method
D.  RequiredFieldValidator
Ans: CompareValidator

26. Mode of storing ASP.NET session
A.  InProc
B.  StateServer
C.  SQL Server
D.  All of the above
Ans: All of the above

27. Which of the following is not the way to maintain state?
A.  View state
B.  Cookies
C.  Hidden fields
D.  Request object
Ans: Request object

28. You can have only one Global.asax file per project.
A.  Yes
B.  No
Ans: Yes

29. ______________ element in the web.config file to run code using the permissions of a specific user
A.  < credential> element
B.  < authentication> element
C.  < authorization> element
D.  < identity> element
Ans: < identity> element

30. __________ is a special subfolder within the windows folder that stores the shared .NET component.
A.  /bin
B.  GAC
C.  Root
Ans: GAC

31. Which of the following is the performance attributes of processModel?
A.  requestQueue limit
B.  maxWorkerThreads
C.  maxIdThreads
D.  All
Ans: All

32. Which of the following is faster and consume lesser memory?
A.  SQLDataReader
B.  Data Set
Ans: SQLDataReader

33. Which of the following is the way to monitor the web application?
A.  MMC Event viewers
B.  Performance logs
C.  Alerts Snap-ins
D.  ALL
Ans: ALL

34. The ________________ property affects how the .Net Framework handles dates, currencies, sorting and formatting issues.
A.  CurrentUICulture
B.  CurrentCulture
Ans: CurrentCulture

35. Where do we include the user lists for windows authentication?
A. < Credential>
B. < authorization>
C. < identity>
D. < authentiation>
Ans: < authorization>

36. Where do we include the user lists for Form authentication?
A.  < credential>
B.  < authorization>
C.  < Identity>
D.  < authentication>
Ans: < credential>

37. Which of the following authentication is best suited for a corporate network?
A.  Windows
B.  Form
C.  User
D.  All
Ans: Windows

38. What attributes do you use to hide a public .Net class from COM?
A.  DLLImport Attributes
B.  ComVisible attributes
C.  COM Interop
D.  All
Ans: ComVisible attributes

39. By default, code written with the Debug class is stripped out of release builds.
A.  Yes
B.  No
Ans: Yes

40. _________ tests make sure that new code does not break existing code.
A.  Regression tests
B.  Integration tests
C.  Unit tests
D.  Load test
Ans: Integration tests

41.  The .NET Framework provides a runtime environment called..... ?
A.   RMT
B.   CLR
C.   RCT
D.   RC
Ans: CLR

42.  In ASP.NET in form page the object which contains the user name is ______ ?
A.   Page.User.Identity
B.   Page.User.IsInRole
C.   Page.User.Name
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Page.User.Identity

43.  Find the term: The .NET framework which provides automatic memory management using a technique called ______________ ?
A.   Serialization
B.   Garbage Collection
C.   Assemblies
D.   Overriding
Ans: Garbage Collection

44.  Which of the following denote ways to manage state in an ASP.Net Application?
A.   Session objects
B.   Application objects
C.   ViewState
D.   All the Above
Ans: All the Above

45.  What is the base class from which all Web forms inherit?
A.   Master Page
B.   Page Class
C.   Session Class
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Page Class

46.  WSDL stands for ___________ ?
A.   Web Server Description Language
B.   Web Server Descriptor Language
C.   Web Services Description Language
D.   Web Services Descriptor Language
Ans: Web Services Description Language

47.  Which of the following must be done in order to connect data from some data resource to Repeater control?
A.   Set the DataSource property
B.   Call the DataBind method
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Both A. and B.

48.  Which of the following is FALSE?
A.   ASP.NET applications run without a Web Server
B.   ASP+ and ASP.NET refer to the same thing
C.   ASP.NET is a major upgrade over ASP
D.   None of the Above
Ans: None of the Above

49.  Which of the following transfer execution directly to another page?
A.   Server.Transfer
B.   Response.Redirect
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Server.Transfer

50.  If one has two different web form controls in a application and if one wanted to know whether the values in the above two different web form control match what control must be used?
A.   DataList
B.   GridView
C.   CompareValidator
D.   Listview
Ans: CompareValidator

51.  Which of the following is used to send email message from my ASP.NET page?
A.   System.Web.Mail.MailMessage
B.   System.Web.Mail.SmtpMail
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Both A. and B.

52.  In my .NET Framework I have threads. Which of the following denote the possible priority level for the threads?
A.   Normal
B.   AboveNormal
C.   Highest
D.   All the Above
Ans: All the Above

53.  In .NET the operation of reading metadata and using its contents is known as ______?
A.   Reflection
B.   Enumeration
C.   Binding
D.   Serialization
Ans: Reflection

54.  In ASP.NET the < authorization > section contain which of the following elements?
A.   < deny >
B.   < allow >
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Both A. and B.

55.  The type of code found in Code-Behind class is ________ ?
A.   Server-side code
B.   Client-side code
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the above
Ans: Server-side code

56.  Common type system is built into which of the following:
A.   CLR
B.   RCT
C.   RCW
D.   GAC
Ans: CLR

57.  The actual work process of ASP.NET is taken care by _____________?
A.   inetinfo.exe
B.   aspnet_isapi.dll
C.   aspnet_wp.exe
D.   None of the Above
Ans: aspnet_wp.exe

58.  Which of the following allow writing formatted output?
A.   Response.Write()
B.   Response.Output.Write()
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Response.Output.Write()

59.  Which of the following denote the property in every validation control?
A.   ControlToValidate property
B.   Text property
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Both A. and B.

60.  How many classes can a single .NET DLL contain?
A.   One
B.   Two
C.   None
D.   Many
Ans: Many

61.  Suppose one wants to modify a SOAP message in a SOAP extension then how this can be achieved. Choose the correct option from below:
A.   One must override the method ReceiveMessage
B.   One must override the method InitializeMethod
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   One must override the method ProcessMessage
Ans: One must override the method ReceiveMessage

62.  Which of the following can be used to add alternating color scheme in a Repeater control?
A.   AlternatingItemTemplate
B.   DataSource
C.   ColorValidator
D.   None of the Above
Ans: AlternatingItemTemplate

63.  Suppose a .NET programmer wants to convert an object into a stream of bytes then the process is called ______________ ?
A.   Serialization
B.   Threading
C.   RCW
D.   AppDomain
Ans: Serialization

64.  The technique that allow code to make function calls to .NET applications on other processes and on other machines is
A.   .NET Threading
B.   .NET Remoting
C.   .NET RMT
D.   None of the above
Ans:  .NET Threading

65.  The namespace within the Microsoft .NET framework which provides the functionality to implement transaction processing is ....................
A.   System.EnterpriseServices
B.   System.Security
C.   System.Diagnostics
D.   System.Data
Ans: A

66.  Which of the following method is used to obtain details about information types of assembly?
A.   GetTypes
B.   GetType
C.   Both A. and B.
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Both A. and B.

67.  Which of the following is TRUE about Windows Authentication in ASP.NET?
A.   Automatically determines role membership
B.   Role membership determined only by user programming
C.   ASP.NET does not support Windows Authentication
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Automatically determines role membership

68.  What tags one need to add within the asp:datagrid tags to bind columns manually?
A.   Set AutoGenerateColumns Property to false on the datagrid tag
B.   Set AutoGenerateColumns Property to true on the datagrid tag
C.   It is not possible to do the operation
D.   Set AutomaunalColumns Property to true on the datagrid tag
Ans: Set AutoGenerateColumns Property to false on the datagrid tag

69.  Which method do you invoke on the DataAdapter control to load your generated dataset with data?
A.   Load ( )
B.   Fill( )
C.   DataList
D.   DataBind
Ans: Fill( )

70.  In ASP.NET the sessions can be dumped by using
A.   Session.Dump
B.   Session.Abandon
C.   Session.Exit
D.   None of the Above
Ans: Session.Abandon

71. Which of the following languages can be used to write server side scripting in ASP.NET?
A.   C-sharp
B.   VB
C.   C++
D.   A and B
Ans: D

72. When an .aspx page is requested from the web server, the out put will be rendered to browser in following format.
A.   HTML
B.   XML
C.   WML
D.   JSP
Ans: A

73. The Asp.net server control, which provides an alternative way of displaying text on web page, is
A.   < asp:label >
B.   < asp:listitem >
C.   < asp:button >
Ans: A

74. The first event to be triggered in an aspx page is.
A.   Page_Load()
B.   Page_Init()
C.   Page_click()
Ans: B

75. Postback occurs in which of the following forms.
A.   Winforms
B.   HTMLForms
C.   Webforms
Ans: C

76. What namespace does the Web page belong in the .NET Framework class hierarchy?
A.   System.web.UI.Page
B.   System.Windows.Page
C.   System.Web.page
Ans: A

77. Which method do you invoke on the Data Adapter control to load your generated dataset?
A.   Fill( )
B.   ExecuteQuery( )
C.   Read( )
Ans: A

78. How do you register a user control?
A.   Add Tag prefix, Tag name
B.   Add Source, Tag prefix
C.   Add Src, Tagprefix, Tagname
Ans: C

79. Which of the following is true?
A.   User controls are displayed correctly in the Visual Studio .NET Designer
B.   Custom controls are displayed correctly in VS.Net Designer
C.   User and Custom controls are displayed correctly in the Visual Studio .NET Designer.
Ans: C

80. To add a custom control to a Web form we have to register with.
A.   TagPrefix
B.   Name space of the dll that is referenced
C.   Assemblyname
D.   All of the above
Ans: B

81. Custom Controls are derived from which of the classes
A.   System.Web.UI.Webcontrol
B.   System.Web.UI.Customcontrol
C.   System.Web.UI.Customcontrols.Webcontrol
Ans: D

82. How ASP.Net Different from classic ASP?
A.   Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is interpreted seperately
B.   Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is compiled as a DLL, the DLLs can be executed on server
C.   Code is separated from the HTML and interpreted Code is interpreted separately
Ans: C

83. What's the difference between Response.Write() andResponse.Output.Write()?
A.   Response.Output.Write() allows you to flush output
B.   Response.Output.Write() allows you to buffer output
C.   Response.Output.Write() allows you to write formatted output
D.   Response.Output.Write() allows you to stream output
Ans: B

84. Why is Global.asax is used?
A.   Implement application and session level events
B.   Declare Global variables
C.   No use
Ans: C

85. There can be more than 1 machine.config file in a system
A.   True
B.   False
Ans: A

86. What is the extension of a web user control file?
A.   .Asmx
B.   .Ascx
C.   .Aspx
Ans: A

87. Which of the following is true?
A.   IsPostBack is a method of System.UI.Web.Page class
B.   IsPostBack is a method of System.Web.UI.Page class
C.   IsPostBack is a readonly property of System.Web.UI.Page class
Ans: B

88. The number of forms that can be added to a aspx page is.
A.   1
B.   2
C.   3
D.   More than 3
Ans: C

89. How do you manage states in asp.net application
A.   Session Objects
B.   Application Objects
C.   Viewstate
D.   All of the above
Ans: A

90. Which property of the session object is used to set the local identifier?
A.   SessionId
B.   LCID
C.   Item
D.   Key
Ans: D

91. Select the caching type supported by ASP.Net
A.   Output Caching
B.   DataCaching
C.   a and b
D.   none of the above
Ans: B

92. Where is the default Session data is stored in ASP.Net?
A.   InProcess
B.   StateServer
C.   Session Object
D.   al of the above
Ans: C

93. Select the type Processing model that asp.net simulate
A.   Event-driven
B.   Static
C.   Linear
D.   Topdown
Ans: A

94. Does the EnableViewState allows the page to save the users input on a form?
A.   Yes
B.   No
Ans: A

95. Which DLL translate XML to SQL in IIS?
A.   SQLISAPI.dll
B.   SQLXML.dll
C.   LISXML.dll
D.   SQLIIS.dll
Ans: A

96. What is the maximum number of cookies that can be allowed to a web site?
A.   1
B.   10
C.   20
D.   More than 30
Ans: A

97. Select the control which does not have any visible interface.
A.   Datalist
B.   DropdownList
C.   Repeater
D.   Datagrid
Ans: C

98. How do you explicitly kill a user session?
A.   Session.Close( )
B.   Session.Discard( )
C.   Session.Abandon
D.   Session.End
E.   Session.Exit
Ans: C

99. Which of the following is not a member of ADODBCommand object?
A.   ExecuteReader
B.   ExecuteScalar
C.   ExecuteStream
D.   Open
E.   CommandText
Ans: C

100. Which one of the following namespaces contains the definition for IdbConnection?
A.   System.Data.Interfaces
B.   System.Data.Common
C.   System.Data
D.   System.Data.Connection
Ans: D

101. In your ASP.NET web application you want to display a list of clients on a Web page. The client list displays 10 clients at a time, and you require the ability to edit the clients. Which Web control is the best choice for this scenario?
A.  The DetailsView control
B.  The Table control
C.  The GridView control
D.  The FormView control
Ans: The GridView control

102. How to implement authentication via web.config?
A.  Include the authentication element.
B.  Include the authorization element.
C.  Include the identity element.
D.  Include the deny element.
Ans: Include the authorization element.

103. You need to store state data that is accessible to any user who connects to your Web application. Which object should you use?
A.  Session
B.  Application
C.  Response.Cookies
D.  Response.ViewState
Ans: Application

104. Explain the significance of Server .MapPath
A.  Returns the Virtual Path of the web folder
B.  Maps the specified virtual path to Physical path
C.  Returns the physical file path that corresponds to virtual specified path
D.  All the above
Ans: Returns the physical file path that corresponds to virtual specified path

105. ________ element in the web.config file to run code using the permissions of a specific user
A.  < credential> element
B.  < authentication> element
C.  < authorization> element
D.  < identity> element
Ans: < identity> element

106. Which of the following is the way to monitor the web application?
A.  MMC Event viewers
B.  Performance logs
C.  Alerts Snap-ins
D.  ALL
Ans: ALL

107. For your ASP.NET web application your graphics designer created elaborate images that show the product lines of your company. Some of graphics of the product line are rectangular, circular, and others are having complex shapes. You need to use these images as a menu on your Web site. What is the best way of incorporating these images into your Web site?
A.  Use ImageButton and use the x- and y-coordinates that are returned when the user clicks to figure out what product line the user clicked.
B.  Use the Table, TableRow, and TableCell controls, break the image into pieces that are displayed in the cells, and use the TableCell control’s Click event to identify the product line that was clicked.
C.  Use the MultiView control and break up the image into pieces that can be displayed in each View control for each product line. Use the Click event of the View to identify the product line that was clicked.
D.  Use an ImageMap control and define hot spot areas for each of the product lines. Use the PostBackValue to identify the product line that was clicked.
Ans: Use an ImageMap control and define hot spot areas for each of the product lines. Use the PostBackValue to identify the product line that was clicked.

108. An ASP.NET page uses a Datagrid displays employee information.The Web application supports a large number of concurrent users, who will be saving data from the grid back to the database. It is important that the Web application doesn't overwhelm the Web Server.
A.  Disable View State and don't use session state
B.  Use View State
C.  Use URL munging
D.  Disable ViewState and use Session State
Ans: Disable View State and don't use session state

109. Which of these data source controls do not implement Caching?
A.  LinqDataSource
B.  ObjectDataSource
C.  SqlDataSource
D.  XmlDataSource
Ans: LinqDataSource

110. Which of the following is the default authentication mode for IIS?
A.  Anonymous
B.  Windows
C.  Basic Authentication
D.  None
Ans: Anonymous

111. When does Garbage collector run?
A.  When application is running low of memory
B.  It runs random
C.  When application is running for more than 15 minutes
D.  None of the above
Ans: When application is running low of memory

112. Which of the following is the way to monitor the web application?
A.  MMC Event viewers
B.  Performance logs
C.  Alerts Snap-ins
D.  ALL
Ans: ALL

113. Which of the following languages are used to write server side scripting in ASP.NET?
A.  C-sharp
B.  VB
C.  Both C-sharp and VB
D.  C++
Ans: Both C-sharp and VB

114. In which of the following format, output will be rendered to browser When an .aspx page is requested from the web server?
A.  JSP
B.  WML
C.  XML
D.  HTML
Ans: HTML

115. Which of the following is true?
A.  User controls are displayed correctly in the Visual Studio .NET Designer
B.  Custom controls are displayed correctly in VS.Net Designer
C.  User and Custom controls are displayed correctly in the Visual Studio .NET Designer.
Ans: Custom controls are displayed correctly in VS.Net Designer

116. How ASP.Net Different from classic ASP?
A.  Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is interpreted seperately
B.  Code is separated from the HTML and interpreted Code is interpreted separately
C.  Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is compiled as a DLL, the DLLs can be executed on server
Ans: Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is compiled as a DLL, the DLLs can be executed on server

117. Which property of the session object is used to set the local identifier?
A.  LCID
B.  SessionId
C.  Key
D.  Item
Ans: LCID

118. Which DLL translate XML to SQL in IIS?
A.  SQLIIS.dll
B.  SQLXML.dll
C.  LISXML.dll
D.  SQLISAPI.dll
Ans: SQLISAPI.dll

119. Which of the following does not have any visible interface?
A.  Datagrid
B.  Repeater
C.  DropdownList
D.  Datalist
Ans: Repeater

120. ________ is not a member of ADODBCommand object.
A.  ExecuteReader
B.  ExecuteStream
C.  ExecuteScalar
D.  CommandText
E.  Open
Ans: Open

121. Which class can be used to create an XML document from scratch?
A.  XmlConvert
B.  XmlDocument
C.  XmlNew
D.  XmlSettings
Ans: XmlDocument

122. Which class can be used to perform data type conversion between .NET data types and XML types?
A.  XmlType
B.  XmlCast
C.  XmlConvert
D.  XmlSettings
Ans: XmlConvert

123. For your ASP.NET web application your graphics designer created elaborate images that show the product lines of your company. Some of graphics of the product line are rectangular, circular, and others are having complex shapes. You need to use these images as a menu on your Web site. What is the best way of incorporating these images into your Web site?
A.  Use ImageButton and use the x- and y-coordinates that are returned when the user clicks to figure out what product line the user clicked.
B.  Use the Table, TableRow, and TableCell controls, break the image into pieces that are displayed in the cells, and use the TableCell control’s Click event to identify the product line that was clicked.
C.  Use the MultiView control and break up the image into pieces that can be displayed in each View control for each product line. Use the Click event of the View to identify the product line that was clicked.
D.  Use an ImageMap control and define hot spot areas for each of the product lines. Use the PostBackValue to identify the product line that was clicked.
Ans: Use an ImageMap control and define hot spot areas for each of the product lines. Use the PostBackValue to identify the product line that was clicked.

124. In your ASP.NET 2.0 web application you want to display an image that is selected from a collection of images. What approach will you use to implementing this?
A.  Use the ImageMap control and randomly select a HotSpot to show or hide.
B.  Use the Image control to hold the image and a Calendar control to randomly select a date for each image to be displayed.
C.  Use the AdServer control and create an XML file with configuration of the control.
D.  Use an ImageButton control to predict randomness of the image to be loaded based on the clicks of the control.
Ans: Use the AdServer control and create an XML file with configuration of the control.

125. Which of the following is a requirement when merging modified data into a DataSet?
A.  A primary key must be defined on the DataTable objects
B.  The DataSet schemas must match in order to merge
C.  The destination DataSet must be empty prior to merging
D.  A DataSet must be merged into the same DataSet that created it.
Ans: A primary key must be defined on the DataTable objects

126. Which Kind Of data we can store in viewstate
A.  Viewstate can store only serilizable object
B.  Viewstate can store anything
C.  Viewstate can store onlys string
D.  None
Ans: Viewstate can store only serilizable object

127. What is/are the predefined TraceListener(s) in ASP.Net
A.  TextWriterTraceListener
B.  EventLogTraceListener
C.  DefaultTraceListener
D.  All the above 1, 2,3
Ans: All the above 1, 2,3

128. We have defined one page_load event in aspx page and same page_load event in code behind who will run first?
A.  page_laod event in aspx page
B.  page_load event in code-behind
C.  both will run simultaneously
D.  None
Ans: page_load event in code-behind

129. Which of the following represents the best use of the Table, TableRow, and Table-Cell controls?
A.  To create and populate a Table in Design view
B.  To create a customized control that needs to display data in a tabular fashion
C.  To create and populate a Table with images
D.  To display a tabular result set
Ans: To create a customized control that needs to display data in a tabular fashion

130. How to find out what version of ASP.NET I am using on my machine?
A.  Response.Write(System.Environment.Version.ToString() );
B.  Response.Write(Version.ToString() );
C.  Response.Write(System.Version.ToString() );
D.  not possible
Ans: Response.Write(System.Environment.Version.ToString() );

131. An ASP.NET page uses a Datagrid displays employee information.The Web application supports a large number of concurrent users, who will be saving data from the grid back to the database. It is important that the Web application doesn't overwhelm the Web Server.
A.  Disable View State and don't use session state
B.  Use View State
C.  Use URL munging
D.  Disable ViewState and use Session State
Ans: Disable View State and don't use session state

132. While creating a Web site with the help of Visual Studio 2005 on a remote computer that does not have Front Page Server Extensions installed, which Web site type will you create in Visual Studio 2005?
A.  HTTP
B.  File
C.  FTP
D.  All of the above
Ans: HTTP

133. What’s the difference between Response.Write() and Response.Output.Write()?
A.  The First one allows you to write formatted output.
B.  The latter one allows you to write formatted output.
C.  No Difference
D.  The latter one allows you to write unformatted output.
Ans: The latter one allows you to write formatted output.

134. If I’m developing an application that must accommodate multiple security levels though secure login and my ASP.NET web application is spanned across three web-servers (using round-robin load balancing) what would be the best approach to maintain login-in state for the users?
A.  Maintain the login state security through a database.
B.  Maintain the login state security through a Session.
C.  Maintain the login state security through a View State.
D.  All of the Above
Ans: Maintain the login state security through a database.

135. Where we can assign value to Static read only member variable of a static class?
A.  Default constructor
B.  Parameterized constructor
C.  Global.asax
D.  On click of button
Ans: Default constructor

136. Which of these files takes the web application in offline mode?
A.  app_offline.html
B.  app_offline.htm
C.  appoffline.html
D.  none of these
Ans: app_offline.htm

137. Which of these classes maps to the tag <input type="checkbox"/>
A.  HtmlCheckBox
B.  HtlmInputCheckBox
C.  HtmlControl
D.  None
Ans: HtlmInputCheckBox

138. In order to prevent a browser from caching a page which of these xstatements should be written?
A.  Response.Cache.SetNoStore();
B.  Response.Cache.SetNoServerCaching();
C.  Response.Cache.SetNoCaching();
D.  None of these
Ans: Response.Cache.SetNoStore();

139. Which of these data source controls do not implement Caching?
A.  LinqDataSource
B.  ObjectDataSource
C.  SqlDataSource
D.  XmlDataSource
Ans: LinqDataSource

140. By default, ASP.NET store SessionIDs in _________.
A.  Cookies
B.  Cache
C.  Database
D.  Global variable
Ans: Cookies

100 Top Agile Testing Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Agile Testing Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.Involving the team in Planning and Estimating and providing early feedback on Delivery Velocity is BEST used to mitigate what kind of risk?
A.   Schedule flaws
B.   Requirements creep
C.   Employee turnover
D.   Poor productivity
Ans: A

2.Which of the following is the BEST approach for estimation?
A.  Expert opinion
B.  Analogy
C.  Disaggregation
D.  A combination of all of the above
Ans:D

3.When forming an Agile project team it is BEST to use:
A.    Generalized Specialists
B.    Top management officials
C.    Highly specialized developers
D.    All of the above
Ans:A

4.What is the unit of measurement that is used to measure the size of a user story for an Agile project?
A.   Function points
B.   Story points
C.   Work breakdown points
D.    Velocity points
Ans: B

5.How is Agile planning different from the traditional approach to planning?
A. Agile planning is done only once
B. Agile planning is non iterative
C. Agile planning places emphasis on the plan
D. Agile planning places emphasis on planning and is iterative
Ans: D

6.When analyzing processes, what becomes increasingly significant for managers to understand in regards to individual skills?
A. A group understanding of processes allows teams to execute their jobs more effectively and efficiently, hut it can never substitute skill
B. A process is more easily developed when the customer is more directly involved in its development
C. Skilled individuals are not necessarily required to be involved w’ith analyzing processes
D. Skill sets are absolutely crucial in the planning and execution of specific processes, html not its analysis
Ans: A

7.The 1OCCSS of testing Delivered or “done done” stones is known as:
A.    Unit Testing
B.    Integration Testing
C.    Exploratory Testing
D.    Release Testing
Ans: C

8.Which of the following is NOT one of the five core risk areas common to all projects?
A.   Specification Breakdown
B.   Scope Creep
C.   Strategic Alienation
D.   Intrinsic Schedule Flaw
Ans: C

9.A Persona used within an Agile user story can he thought of as:
A.   A person who viIl only use the application infrequently
B.   A person who will influence early adopters of the application
C.   A formally-assigned user-acceptance tester
D.   An imaginary representation of a user role
Ans: D

10.What are the benefits of using Sidky Agile Measurement Index (SAMI) to measure agility of your
organization?
A. Return on time invested (ROTI) can be calculated quickly and accurately.
B. Avoid random selection of methodology, make sure practices work coherently and ensure practices focus on value delivery.
C. Perform Earned value management (EVM).
D. Avoid risk on critical projects.
Ans: B

11.If a team can complete 10 story points In an iteration then how long will it take for the team to complete 100 story points?
A. 10 Iterations
B. 10 waves
C. 20 Iterations
D. 20 waves
Ans: A

12.What is NOT a characteristics of a good user story?
A. Value
B. Negotiable
C. Estimatable
D. Dependant
Ans: D

13.What Agile principle can help in chaordic situation?
A. Incremental delivery
B. Continuous Integration
C. PMO policy
D. Latest technology
Ans: A

14.For one of your product, optimal cost of change (CoC. was estimated to be 100 story points but at the end of the iteration actual C0C was found to be 200 story points. What is the Technical debt that your project had encountered (if any)?
A. None. “Velocity” the great equalizer will take care of Technical debt.
B. None. Your developers will work extended hours to pay back the Technical debt in next iteration so it can be ignored for now.
C. 100 Story points
D. 200 Story points
Ans: C

15.A person who makes decision and practices Scrum to the core is performing what role?
A. Pig
B. Chicken
C. Scrum Master
D. Scrum Team
Ans: A

16.What does “Timeboxed” means in Agile terms?
A. Fast
B. Flexible
C. Frequent
D. Fixed
Ans: D

17.According to Agile manifesto what carries more value?
A. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.
B. Individuals and interactions over people and technique.
C. Individuals and interactions over projects and tools.
D. Individuals and interactions over products and tools.
Ans: A

18.There was an Issue In your project and your manager kept asking “why?’ several times. What is he doing?
A. He Is executing collaboration.
B. He is executing “Five whys” a Lean tool.
C. He Is executing “get your attention” tool.
D. None of the above
Ans: B

19.How does tools like FIT and Fitness compliment Agile?
A. Automated Acceptance Tests
B. Continuous Integration
C. Unit Test
D. Code coverage metrics
Ans: A

20.You are working on a newly formed Agile team. Your coach gathers the team and asks every one to close their eyes and start counting one at a time, synchronously. What is the coach trying to do with this exercise?
A. Collaborating using circle counting game.
B. Coordinating using mute mapping game.
C. Consensus gathering using some random game he Invented.
D. Consent gathering using some random game he Invented.
Ans: A

21.Who can be the best user proxy?
A. ScrumMaster
B. Customers
C. Agile coach
D. Developer
Ans: B

22.What do you infer from this following user story? “As a sales agent, I want a client search feature so that I can find my preferred clients quickly and easily.”
A. Good. No additional information required.
B. Good. Need clarification on “quick and easy” for UI testing.
C. NOT good. Too big.
D. NOT good. Too small.
Ans: B

23.Wireframes and prototypes are widely used as part of?
A. High-level design
B. Detailed design
C. Empirical design
D. None of the above
Ans: C

24.What is NOT an Agile methodology?
A. Extreme programming (XP)
B. Scrum
C. Crystal Clear
D. PMBOK® 3
Ans: D

25.Iterative development is NOT a good idea for?
A. Back end development
B. Front end development
C. Middleware development
D. Software development
Ans: B

26.Department manager calls you and asks you if you can present an elevator statement to an executive who is planning to make a quick stop in your city for a town hall meeting. He also asks you how much time he need to slot in the agenda.
A. Give him an 0CM of 30 minutes
B. Tell him that you will get back to him.
C. Two minutes and nothing more than that.
D. It depends on the size and complexity of your project.
Ans: C

27.Which Agile methodology advocates the use of problem domain?
A. Extreme programming (XP)
B. Feature-Driven Development (FDD.
C. Scrum
D. Evo
Ans: B

28.According to Declaration of Interdependence (DOl), risk is an expected entity for a project. How is risk tackled in an Agile environment according to DOl?
A. Risk is unmanageable so it should be ignored.
B. Through iterations, anticipation and adaptation.
C. Through continuous integration.
D. Through pair programming.
Ans: B

29.You are a coach facilitating retrospective meeting. What is the main purpose of this meeting that facilitator need to ensure during the meeting?
A. Peer pressure, Fine-grain coordination, Focusing on the few, Daily commitment and Raising impediments.
B. Know the work, Get a fresh start, Commit to shared goals and Create focus and abundance.
C. True-up, Show and tell, Get direct feedback, Offer insights and Ask for help.
D. Inspect and adapt. Look back at how, not what Do (even) better next time.
Ans: D

30.How do you implement action items captured in retrospective meeting?
A. As overhead items in the upcoming release.
B. As overhead items In the current release.
C. Update the Product backlog and prioritize in the next Iteration planning meeting to implement in coming iteration.
D. Utilize the project slack.
Ans: C

31.You are an experienced developer working on a project following Extreme programming (XP). A rookie developer joined your team recently and you see him copy-pasting code from one module to another and running unit tests. What do you think he is doing?
A. He is stealing some ones intellectual property.
B. He Is doing alright. You are allowed to copy paste colleagues code.
C. He is in violation of a design principle called DRY.
D. He is in violation of organization policy.
Ans: C

32.How are EVM metrics used in Agile?
A. They are used to prioritize projects.
B. They are used to monitor project performance
C. They are used to analyze risk.
D. They are used to measure coach’s performance.
Ans: B

33.Before a tester begins the process of exploratory testing, what tool should he have in place to give him an idea of what to explore in the systems and what kinds of things to look for?
A. A Roadmap
B. A Bug List
C. A Defect Document
D. A Charter
Ans: D

34.What type of report provides a bird’s-eye view of the project. It may be produced when the teams updates their release plan, and will allow them to show their progress and predict a completion date.
A. A Burn-up chart
B. A Time Usage Chart
C. An Iteration Plan
D. A Management Report
Ans: A

35.Collaboration requires that the team must take joint responsibility for their work. In order for this to effectively take place, what must the team members build?
A. A definition of done
B. Continuous flow
C. Trust
D. An information radiator
Ans: C

36.In Agile development, when a developer estimates a story point by gauging the amount of effort required to complete a task based on the amount of time she will have to focus exclusively on the task, with no interruptions, what estimate unit is she using?
A. Ideal Time
B. Velocity
C. Alternative Time
D. Time box
Ans: A

37.What two things should be completed before moving on to the next iteration planning begins?
A. the commitment ceremony and an iteration demo
B. emergency request and an iteration demo
C. a retrospective and the commitment ceremony
D. an iteration demo and a retrospective
Ans: D

38.This high-level initial estimate of the requirements is maintained by the Project Owner throughout the entire project. It is dynamic because management can constantly change it to reflect the needs of an evolving product, and its environment.
A. A Timebox
B. A Product Backlog
C. An Iteration
D. A Sprint Backlog
Ans: B

39.The intersection of a trend line for work remaining (or backlog) and the horizontal axis indicating the most probable completion of work at the point in time would be found in which graphical chart?
A. Burn-up chart
B. Velocity graph
C. Burndown chart
D. Execution chart
Ans: C

40.During this Team meeting everyone provides a status update to the other team members. It a 10-15 minute semi-real-time’ status meeting that allows participants to become aware of potential challenges as well as coordinate efforts to resolve difficult and/or time-consuming issues.
A. Brevity Meetings
B. Collaboration Meeting
C. Brown Bag Meetings
D. Daily Stand-ups
Ans: D

41.When a Team takes the opportunity to gather for a meeting and reflect on situations they encountered during a project, in an effort to better align their processes with their changing situations, what Agile tool are they said to be using?
A. A contingency review
B. Brainstorming
C. A lessons learned Scrum
D. A retrospective
Ans: D

42.As a Product Owner is sitting through a demonstration meeting for his product, he realizes that if changed the release schedule of a newly identified feature he could immediately increase the business value of the project without increasing the cost of implementation. By realizing this value and making this last minute adjustment which of the following BEST describes what was done to the project?
A. Improved the quality of a feature in the product.
B. Increase risk of project failure.
C. Change the requirements specification.
D. Increase the ROl of the project.
Ans: D

43.Which of the following is not part of the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
A. Teams and interactions over processes and tools
B. Working software over comprehensive documentation
C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
D. Responding to change over following a plan
Ans: A

44.The fifth of the twelve Principles behind the Agile Manifesto” states:
Build projects around ___________  individuals.
Give them the ___________ and support they need. and trust them to get the job done.
A. specialized, tools
B. motivated, environment
C. technical, documentation
D. motivated, documentation
Ans: B

45.A team that focuses on delivering increments of functionality and removal of defects white making orderly process toward completing a release with potentially shippable functionality can best be described as?
A. incremental delivery
B. value driven development
C. business case development
D. iteration planning
Ans: A

46.The following image represents what in the Net Present Value (NPV) calculation?
(1+i)-t
A. The amount by which the future net cash flow will be incremented over a release.
B. The amount by which the present net cash flow will be discounted.
C. The amount by which the future net cash flow will be discounted.
D. The sum of the current net cash flow will be discounted.
Ans: C

47.What is the difference between NPV and IRR?
A. There is not difference.
B. IRR is a measure of how much money a project can be expected to return in  today’s present value, whereas NPV is a measure of how quickly the money invested in the project will increase in value.
C. NPV is a measure of how much money a project can be expected to return in  future value, and IRR is a measure of how quickly the money invested in the project will decrease in value.
D. NPV is a measure of how much money a project can be expected to return in o today’s present value, whereas IRR is a measure of how quickly the money invested in the project will increase in value.
Ans: D

48.By writing features to minimize technical dependencies between them the product owner has the greatest amount of flexibility to do what them?
A. weigh
B. constrain
C. prioritize
D. assign to developers
Ans: C

49.The product owner is leading the Team to decide which features they should include in the Sprint Backlog first. They decide to select the most important features by identifying which features will bring the most benefits if implemented, as well as the penalty incurred if not implemented, on a relative scale of 1 to 9. This can best be described as:
A. Relative prioritization
B. Value base computation estimate
C. Must-have prioritization
D. Darwinism estimation
Ans: A

50.A method of testing that involves writing an executable test before the solution is coded and typically developed in conjunction with the Product Owner and/or customer, then evaluate to determine whether or not a feature satisfies its acceptance criteria can BEST be described as:
A. Behavior driven development
B. Customer Driven Development
C. Acceptance Test-Driven Development
D. Story Based Test Development
Ans: C

51. Which of the following best describes the approach for determining the iteration (timebox) length?
A. Iterations (timeboxes) should always be 30 days
B. The team determines iteration (timebox) length by dividing the total number of story points by the average velocity of the team
C. Iterations (timeboxes) should always be two weeks
D. The team should agree on the length of the iteration (timebox) taking the size and complexity of the project into consideration
Ans: D

52. Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader?
A. Task focused
B. Process oriented
C. Supportive
D. Disinterested
Ans: C

53. Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?
A. Product Owner
B. Project Manager
C. Lead Developer
D. Tester
Ans: A

54. What are the advantages of maintaining consistent iteration (timebox) lengths throughout the project?
A. They help to establish a consistent pattern of delivery
B. They help the team to objectively measure progress
C. They provide a consistent means of measuring team velocity
D. All of the above
Ans: D

55. Tracking project issues in an Agile project is the primary responsibility of the…
A. Tester
B. Project Leader
C. Functional Manager
D. Developer
Ans: B

56. Why is it important to trust the team?
A. High trust teams do not have to be accountable to each other
B. High trust teams do not require a user representative
C. The Project Manager does not have to keep a project schedule
D. The presence of trust is positively correlated with the team performance
Ans: D

57. What is the best approach for running an effective workshop?
A. Presentation
B. Oratory
C. Facilitation
D. Lecture
Ans: C

58. Which of the following best represents the Agile approach to planning?
A. Planning is a waste of time and should not be done
B. Planning should be done in detail at the outset and then not revisited
C. Planning is an iterative job and involves the whole team
D. Planning should all be done by the Project Manager
Ans: C

59. Who should be the main judge of the business value?
A. The customer representative
B. The project leader
C. The facilitator
D. All of the above
Ans: A

60. If a timebox (iteration) plan needs to be reprioritised in a hurry, who should re-prioritise?
A. The developers alone (they know what the customer wants by now)
B. The customer alone (the developers would only choose the easy things as top priority)
C. The Project Leader (they can give an independent, pragmatic view)
D. The whole team including customer and developers (together they can consider both business value and practicality) © Copyright DSDM Consortium 2009. All rights reserved.
Ans: D

61. What is the effect of having large visible project plan on a wall?
A. It is a fire risk and a health hazard
B. It communicates progress to the team and other stakeholders
C. It is dangerous, as management will misinterpret what the team is doing
D. It is useless, as it does not allow the team to innovate
Ans: B

62. How should work be allocated to the team in an Agile project?
A. The Project Leader should give tasks to individuals to create challenges for them
B. Tasks should be randomly allocated using Planning Poker
C. Team members should self-select tasks
D. The biggest tasks should be done by the Project Leader themselves
Ans: C

63. What should the team do if the customer representative is too busy to be available?
A. Carry on with the work without customer input. It will probably be faster without customer interference anyway
B. Send the customer an email warning that the end product will be completed on time, but will not meet their needs
C. Allow a developer to take on the role of customer representative
D. Draw the problem to the attention of the Project Leader and ultimately the Project Sponsor
Ans: D

64. Which one of the following is a key feature that you would expect to find in an Agile project?
A. A large number of written progress reports
B. No project documentation, as all communication is tacit information
C Good face-to-face communication, supplemented by lean but sufficient documentation
D. All documentation done in previous projects would be replicated for the Agile project.
Ans: C

65. When handling team dynamics, the Agile Leader should …
A Work to build trust between the team members
B. Encourage an environment of competition and personal advantage
C. Stand for no nonsense and show who is the boss
D. Expect team members to sort out all of their own problems, and not come to the Project Leader for help with anything
Ans: A

66. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding acceptance of any deliverables on an Agile Project?
A. The team should allow only senior managers to sign off deliverables
B. The team should get acceptance of project deliverables from the appropriate stakeholders at least at the end of every timebox / iteration
C. The team should get acceptance of project deliverables from the users during a UAT phase at the end of the project
D. Acceptance of any particular deliverable on the project is gained from all stakeholders at the same time.
Ans: B

67. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding quality of deliverables from an Agile Project?
A. The products produced by an Agile project should be cheaper than those produced by any other approach, but quality will suffer
B. The products will be more expensive than by any other approach but will be top quality
C. The products will be fit for purpose, but may not do what the customer wanted
D. The products will be of appropriate quality, as guided by the customer representative involved throughout the development process
Ans: D

68. What is the Agile approach to doing design early in a project?
A. A big design up front is always a good idea
B. Just enough design up front gives a good foundation to start from and helps to mitigate risk, without unnecessarily wasting time
C. No design up front is the best approach as most of the fun of a project is discovery of the unexpected
D. Design has no place in an Agile project
Ans: B

69. An Agile approach advocates which of the following approaches?
A. Get something quick and dirty thrown together to save time
B. Get something simple up and working as quickly as possible
C. Get something business-valuable delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with the right level of quality
D. Get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the documentation signed off as complete and unchangeable
Ans: C

70. Which of these best describes the Agile approach to team-working?
A. The team can work all night, every night if enough pizza is provided
B. The team should be expected to work overtime towards the end of the project
C. The team should strive for a sustainable pace and a normal working week
D. The team will “burn out” if they have to work overtime for more than two timeboxes (iterations) in a row
Ans: C

71. Which one of the following statements is true for Agile projects?
A. All project stakeholders should attend every requirements workshop
B. Retrospectives are only run at the end of a project
C. It is best if project manager facilitates the project’s workshops
D. A facilitator will manage the structure of a facilitated workshop
Ans: D

72. Which one of the following is an important feature of the stand-up / wash up meeting?
A. Everyone must stand for the whole time
B. The meeting must be short and well structured
C. The Project Manager must ensure it is clear to all which team members are not performing
D. No-one is allowed to leave the stand-up meeting until all problems raised have been solved
Ans: B

73. Who should attend the stand-up meetings?
A. Sponsor and Executive Management only
B. Project Manager and Technical Leads only
C. Project Leader and Customer Representatives only
D. The entire team
Ans: D

74. One of the stages you would expect to see a team go through is:
A. Storming
B. Warming
C. Calming
D. Yawning
Ans: A

75. When estimating is done for the project, the solution developers should be:
A. Involved in the process
B. In total control of the process
C. Told what the estimates should be
D. Not making estimates at all
Ans: A

76. During an Iteration (Sprint) the developers should be:
A. Able to contact the customer to clarify aspects of the work
B. Completely uninterrupted by the customer
C. In twice-daily contact with the customer
D. Able to work without needing to disturb the customer
Ans: A

77. The end result of an Agile development is:
A. A product of a professional quality which fits the business need
B. A product of almost as good a quality to a Waterfall development
C. Rather poor quality but at least it is quick
D. A technically perfect re-factored solution
Ans: A

78. An Agile customer …
A. Must have a good understanding of Agile techniques
B. Will always receive worse systems than their non-Agile counterparts
C. Will typically get business value delivered early
D. Will need to work out at the gym regularly
Ans: C

79. An Agile team …
A. Is self-organizing, so needs no specific skills
B. Collaborates and supports team members
C. Ensures that weak members of the team are thrown out of the team
D. Ensures blame is allocated fairly
Ans: B

80. The Agile process …
A. Encourages the team to meet regularly
B. Has no meetings
C. Has lengthy reporting requirements
D. Has no reporting requirements
Ans: A

81. The Agile leader …
A. Should hand out tasks to the team each day
B. Should expect the team to be involved in work-allocation
C. Should give detailed work-plans to the team each day
D. Should micro-manage the work of the team, if they are inexperienced
Ans: B

82. What is a Kan Ban?
A. A list of activities that can be banned by the team
B. The set of Won’t Haves for a project
C. A visible chart of work for the team
D. A ban on fizzy drinks within the team
Ans: C

83. What is meant by “Yesterday’s Weather” in an Agile project?
A. Teams work less well when it rains
B. Keeping metrics of earlier work to help with future estimates
C. Retrospectives should include less important topics such as the weather
D. Estimating is as futile as predicting the weather
Ans: B

84. In Agile projects, we plan to “learn as we go” because…
A. It is more fun for the developers
B. Many projects are evolutionary, and a better solution emerges this way
C. It is boring to try to analyse everything at the beginning of a project
D. It gives a good reason for late delivery
Ans: B

85. The recommended approach to design in an Agile project is:
A. No design up front
B. Big design up front
C. Just enough design up front
D. Use a previous design – it will be good enough
Ans: C

86. What is the risk that an Agile leader takes in empowering the team?
A. The Agile leader might lose their job as the team is doing all the work
B. If the team fails, the Agile leader will not get a performance bonus
C. The Agile leader has less direct control over the team’s work, but still has the responsibility
D. The Agile leader cannot share the glory of team success
Ans: C

87. The Agile approach to documentation is:
A. Do no documentation – it is a waste of time
B. Do plenty of documentation, to prove you have done a good job
C. Do the necessary documentation to support the use of the product
D. Do more documentation than usual, because Agile is risky
Ans: C

88. The Agile way is:
A. To produce working product early and incrementally
B. To produce working product after documentation has been signed off
C. To produce simple prototypes early, but no finished product until the end of the project
D. To produce products without any technical integrity
Ans: A

89. The customer in an Agile project ….
A. Has no control over the prioritization of delivered features
B. Has total control over the prioritization of features
C. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the developers have the final decision
D. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the business has the final decision
Ans: D

90. In the popular prioritization technique called “MoSCoW”, the “M” stands for:
A. May have
B. Major
C. Must Have
D. Mandatory
Ans: C

91. The working culture of an Agile team is …
A. Collective
B. Collaborative
C. Connective
D. Contemplative
Ans: B

92. The leadership style of an Agile Leader is …
A. Fascinating
B. Fabulous
C. Facilitative
D. Fantastic
Ans: C

93. An Agile approach values …
A. Process over people
B. People over process
C. Plans over process
D. Plans over people
Ans: B

94. Which of the following are attributes of an Agile team?
A. Trust and courage
B. Infinite patience
C. Cynicism
D. Hope and charity
Ans: A

95. A sustainable pace means …
A. If the team work long hours regularly they will get used to it, and be able to sustain it
B. A 40 hour week is for the weak
C. The team should establish a velocity which can be sustained with normal working hours
D. Working long hours is the only way to deliver early
Ans: C

96. A burn-down chart shows …
A. The declining energy level of the team
B. The progress of the work and features completed
C. The number of hours worked after dark
D. The rate of reduction of budget for a project
Ans: B

97. The reason for holding regular retrospectives is:
A. It allows the team to take a welcome break from work
B. It gives management information to use in team members’ performance reviews
C. It allows learning which can be used to improve team performance during the project
D. It prevents deviation from the process which the team has been following
Ans: C

98. Once a project is underway, the approach to planning is:
A. Plans should never be changed
B. It is normal to need to plan and re-plan as the project progresses
C. Plans should only be changed with full approval of all stakeholders
D. Plans are not required
Ans: B

99. An Agile project …
A. Should have no control over its progress
B. Should be able to demonstrate control of its progress
C. Is always out of control
D. Is controlled by the velocity of the most junior team member
Ans: B

100. An Agile project should have:
A. Occasional early deliveries, if the business is prepared to accept lower quality
B. A regular pattern of delivery of developer-focused products
C. A regular pattern of delivery of business-valued increments
D. An irregular and unpredictable delivery of products
Ans: C

101. When a team is successful …
A. It should be encouraged to celebrate success only when the project is over
B. It should be encouraged to celebrate immediately
C. It should never celebrate as this wastes company money
D. It should never celebrate as this makes less successful teams feel bad
Ans: B

102. In order to communicate well, the Agile project should:
A. Keep team-size large, to avoid anyone being left out
B. Break the project into small teams
C. Only operate with one team of less than 10 people
D. Always back up face to face communication with a written report
Ans: B

103. If a new requirement emerges once an Agile project is running, it should be:
A. Automatically included in the work of the project
B. Automatically excluded and left until a later project
C. Assessed for importance and, if important to the business, included in the project, displacing less important requirements
D. Put onto a list for consideration by the wider group of stakeholders after the project has been completed
Ans: C

104.Which of the following would not provide useful information in creating a Persona?
A. An age for the persona
B. A picture of the persona
C. A name for the persona
D. All of them are useful.
Ans: D

105.Which of the following best describes the technique that is used when there is a desire to make a collective decision among individuals, in a non-judgmental setting, to discuss a specific agenda item with the goal of coming up with a plan of action.
A. Release plan meeting
B. Charter review
C. Brainstorming
D. Iteration planning meeting
Ans: C

30 Top CCNA Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

CCNA Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
A.every 30 seconds
 B.every 180 seconds
 C.after the holddown time expires
 D.when a link goes up or down
 E.when a routing loop occurs
ANS: D

2.Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
 A.Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
 B.Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
 C.Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
 D.Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
ANS: C

3.What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process?
 A.all routers in the area have link state databases
 B.each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
 C.LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
 D.routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
 E.Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP). is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs
ANS: A

4.What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
 A.floods the LSP to neighbors
 B.calculates the SPF algorithm
 C.runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
 D.computes the best path to the destination network
ANS: A

5.What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors?
 A.30 second timer expires
 B.whenever the network topology changes
 C.immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
 D.immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
 E.upon initial startup of router or routing protocol
ANS: E

6.Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
 A.sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
 B.sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
 C.queries BOS to see if it has a better route
 D.only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions
ANS: B

7.Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
 A.routing table
 B.adjacency table
 C.link-state database
 D.neighbor table
 E.topology database
ANS: C
8.What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
A.splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
 B.assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
 C.using update timers to restrict routing updates
 D.strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries
ANS: A

9.What is the final step in the link state routing process?
 A.successors are placed into the routing table
 B.SPF computes best path to each destination network
 C.LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
 D.DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks
ANS: B

10.What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol?
 A.The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
 B.Each router independently determines the route to each network.
 C.Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols
 D.After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a
topology.
 E.Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological
database.
ANS: D

11.Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
 A.DUAL
 B.Dijkstra
 C.Bellman-Ford
 D.Diffie-Hellman
ANS: B

12.Which routers will router D receive hello packets?
 A.A and E
 B.B and C
 C.A, B, C, and E
 D.C only
ANS: B

13.What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
 A.updates triggered by network changes
 B.updates sent at regular intervals
 C.updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
 D.updates that include complete routing tables
ANS:  A

14.Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
 A.hop count
 B.uptime of the route
 C.cost of the link
 D.a list of all the routing protocols in use
ANS: C

15.Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm?
 A.RIPv1
 B.RIPv2
 C.IS-IS
  D.BGP
 E.OSP
ANS: C,D

16.Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
 A.drop the packet
 B.forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
 C.forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
 D.use the default route
ANS:D

17.A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
 A.the route with the smallest AD
 B.the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
 C.the route with the highest bandwidth
 D.the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost
ANS: B

18.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
 A.they are dropped
 B.sent to default gateway
 C.forward out interface Serial0/0/1
 D.forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0
ANS: C

19.The following entry is displayed in the routing table: R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1 What type of route is this?
 A.a level 1 parent route
 B.a level 1 supernet route
 C.a level 1 ultimate network route
 D.a level 2 child route
 E.a level 2 ultimate child route
ANS: C

20.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
 A.Child routes are present in the routing table.
 B.A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
 C.The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
 D.Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
 E.Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.
ANS: C

21.Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
 A.3
 B.4
 C.5
 D.6
 E.7
ANS: E

22.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
 A.EIGRP is being used
 B.There is at least one parent and one child route
 C.192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
 D.Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1
ANS: B

23.Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
 A.RIPv1
 B.RIPv2
 C.EIGRP
 D.OSPF
ANS: B

24.Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
 A.The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
 B.The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
 C.A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
 D.All of the routes listed are network routes.
ANS: D

25.Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
  A.172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
 B.0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
 C.172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
 D.172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask
ANS: C

26.Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
 A.issue the ip default-network command
 B.use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
 C.enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
 D.issue the ip classless command
 E.do nothing, ip classless is on by default
ANS: E

27.Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
 A.drop the packet
 B.send packet out Serial 0/0/1
 C.send packet to network 0.0.0.0
 D.send packet out FastEthernet 0/0
ANS: B

28.A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1
The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58.
Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
 A.the static route
 B.the OSPF route
 C.the EIGRP route
 D.the RIP route
ANS: D

29.Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
 A.172.16.0.0/16
 B.172.16.0.0/24
 C.172.16.0.0/30
 D.172.16.1.0/16
 E.172.16.1.0/24
ANS: A

30.Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network? 
  A.0.0.0.0
 B.255.255.0.0
 C.255.255.255.0
 D.255.255.255.255
ANS: C