40 Top COGNOS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

COGNOS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.Which of the following is NOT a usage property in Framework Manager?
A.Fact
B.Dimension
C.Attribute
D.Identifier
E.Unknown
Ans: B

2.When working with dimensional data in Report Studio, an intersection is useful for obtaining a value from the combination of two or more members that you specify. This intersection is called:
A.A Singleton
B.A X Axis Measurement
C.A Visual Angle
D.A Position
E.A Tuple
Ans: E

3.In Oracle 11i, which of the following objects does not physically store data?
A.Views
B.Tables
C.Materialized Views
Ans: A

4.When creating a package in Framework Manager, the following setting allows the data within an object to be used in other objects without the original object itself being available to report users.
A.Select
B.Traverse
C.Unselect
D.Hide
Ans: D

5.Without using aggregation (Group By), is it possible to determine the minimum or maximum value of a data set using Oracle SQL?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: A

6.In Report Studio, what function would be useful in implementing alternate line shading within a list box?
A.Char_length
B.currentMember
C.mod
D.exp
E.Order
Ans: C

7.In Cognos Connection, RSS news feeds may be specified by a URL address.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

8.In Transformer, alternate drill-down paths / alternate hierarchies must have the a convergence level that is:
A.Unique
B.Ordered
C.Open
D.Set
Ans: A

9.Are Metric Studio metrics part of the Content Store?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: B

10.Within Cognos Connection, these objects are used to control the display of one or more reports in a single portal page or in a dashboard.
A.Calculations
B.Global Filters
C.NewsItems
D.Policies
Ans: B

11.In Report Studio, which of the following is not a valid prompt button?
A.Execute
B.Back
C.Cancel
D.Reprompt
E.Next
Ans: A

12.Within the expression editor of Framework Manager, a quality of service indicator on functions gives a visual clue about the behavior of the function.  What quality of service indicator reflects the danger of poor performance on some data sources?
A.X
B.!!
C.!
D.&
E.no symbol
Ans: C

13.In Report Studio, at what level must the query be specified?
A.List
B.List Cell
C.List Column
D.List Column Body
E.List Header
Ans: A

14.Within Framework Manager, what objects are used to store key-value pairs which create conditional query subjects that allow for substitutions when the report is run?
A.Packages
B.Parameters
C.Filters
D.Query Subjects
E.Namespaces
Ans: B

15.When tuning performance, one should remember that the following setting takes precedence over the other two settings:
A.Advanced Routing Settings
B.Affinity Settings
C.Balance Request Settings
Ans: B

16.In Analysis Studio, what functionality would cause subtotals or totals to result in more than the sum of the rows or columns?
A.Custom Set
B.Nested Rows
C.Hidden Rows
D.Custom Filters
Ans: C

17.In Oracle 11i, what type of index is used to index low cardinality columns in a warehouse environment?
A.Function-based
B.Bitmap
C.Optimized
D.Normal
Ans: B

18.In Report Studio, what property may be set to prevent the object from being rendered and prevent its space from being reserved in the report?
A.Box Type
B.Visible
C.No Data Object
D.Contents Height
Ans: A

19.What is the Cognos 8 service that manages the storage of customer applications, including application-specific security, configuration data, models, metrics, reports, and report output?
A.Gateway
B.Package
C.Namespace
D.Content Manager
Ans: D

20.What feature allows reports to run based upon the package at the time the report was last saved?
A.Deployment
B.Verify
C.Versioning
D.Preserve
Ans: C

21.For what purpose are custom views used in Transformer?
A.Point-In-Time Reporting
B.Security
C.Manage Languages
D.Performance Optimization
Ans: B

22.Within Framework Manger, this type of SQL does not process query subjects as subqueries.
A.Pass-Through SQL
B.Cognos SQL
C.Native SQL
D.PL SQL
Ans: A

23.In Framework Manager, what object is required to enable drilling up and down in a hierarchy used in Analysis Studio reports?
A.Identifier
B.Fact
C.Dimension
D.Attribute
Ans: C

24.Which of the following is NOT a valid Oracle SQL statement?
A.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) "column2" FROM table1 GROUP BY column1 ORDER BY column1
B.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) "column2" FROM table1 HAVING SUM(column2) = 0 GROUP BY column1 ORDER BY column1
C.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) "column2" FROM table1 GROUP BY column1 HAVING SUM(column2) = 0 ORDER BY column1
D.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) "column2" FROM table1 ORDER BY column1 GROUP BY column1
Ans: D

25.In Oracle SQL, what is the command that returns the first non-null value in a list of values?
A.NVL
B.DECODE
C.COALESCE
D.INSTR
E.ISNOTNULL
Ans: C

26.In Cognos Connection, which of the following is a valid permission to be granted at the report level?
A.Run
B.View
C.Traverse
D.Edit
Ans: C

27.If the user desires to retrieve all rows from Table A and all rows from Table B based on a join criteria, what type of join would be necessary?
A.Left Outer Join
B.Inner Join
C.Cross Join
D.Cluster Join
E.Cartesian Join
Ans: E

28.In an Oracle SQL insert statement, is it necessary to designate the column names?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: B

29.What is the regular aggregate property of a calculated fact object within Framework Manager?
A.Sum
B.Total
C.Average
D.Automatic
E.Unsupported
Ans: D

30.Can SQL code be added directly into a Report Studio report?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: A

31. What can an administrator use to transfer security data from one location to another using Series 7 namespaces?
A. Settings (.csa) file
B. Local authentication cache (.lac) file
C. Local authentication export (.lae) file
D. Configuration specification (.ccs) file
Ans:  C

32. What is the minimum requirement for configuring Cognos Office Connection using Smart Client technology with
Microsoft Office components?
A. Excel with MS Office 2003 Professional
B. Excel with MS Office 2003 Standard
C. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Standard
D. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Professional
Ans:  A

33. What is created after the administrator initializes the metric store?
A. a metric extract
B. an object extract
C. a metric package
D. a relational database
Ans:  C

34. What is stored in the Cognos 8 content store?
A. Log files
B. Metric packages
C. Report specifications
D. Metric Designer extracts
Ans:  C

35. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. audit logging
B. trace logging
C. event logging
D. performance logging
Ans:  A

36. How can an administrator ensure that users who are logged on to Cognos 8 are not prompted to log on again when
they access PowerCube data?
A. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication export (.lae) file.
B. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication cache (.lac) file.
C. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same NTLM namespace.
D. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same Series 7 namespace.
Ans:  D

37. Which model type enables users to drill down in Analysis Studio?
A. Architect model
B. Relational model
C. Dimensional model
D. Data Manager model
Ans:  C

38. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Ans:  C

39. Under what circumstances would full logging level be most appropriately used?
A. Whenever users cannot access the data.
B. Whenever detailed troubleshooting is required.
C. Whenever more than one dispatcher has been configured.
D. Whenever the default configuration for logging has been changed.
Ans:  B

40. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8,
use requests, and
service requests and responses.
A. trace
B. basic
C. request
D. minimal
Ans:  C

30 Top DBMS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

DBMS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1) ------- responsible for authorizing access to the database, for co-ordinating and monitoring its use, acquiring software, and hardware resources, controlling its use and  monitoring efficiency of operations.
A.Authorization Manager
B.Storage Manager
C.File Manager
D.Transcation Manager
E.Buffer Manager
Ans: E

2) ------- is a property that describes various characteristics of an entity
A.ER Diagram
B.Column
C.Relationship
D.Attribute
Ans: D

3) -------- level describes what data is stored in the database and the relationships among the data
A.Physical Level
B.Logical Level
C.Conceptual Level
D.None of the above
Ans: B

4) ---------- denote derived attributes.
A.Double ellipse
B.Dashed ellipse
C.Squared ellipse
D.Ellipse with attribute name underlined
Ans: B

5) A --------- is an association between entities
A.Relation
B.One to One
C.Generalization
D.Specialization
Ans: A

6) -------------  stores metadata about the structure of the data base
A.Physical data base
B.Query Analyzer
C.Data Dictionary
D.Data Catalog
Ans: C

7) ------------is a collection of operations that perform s single logical function in  a database application
A.Transaction
B.Concurrent operation
C.Atomocity
D.Durability
Ans: A

8) The problem that is compounded when constraints involve several data items from different files are Called --------
A.Transaction Control Management Problem
B.Security Problem
C.Integrity Problem
D.Durability Problem
Ans: C

9) Ensuring atomicity is the responsibility of the ------------component
A.File Manager
B.Buffer Manager
C.DBA
D.Transation Manager
Ans: D

10) -----manages the allocation of the space on the disk storage and the data base structure  used to represent information stored on disk
A.Disk Manager
B.File Manager
C.Buffer Manager
D.Memory Manager
E.None of the above
Ans: B

11) is the minimal super key
A.Primary Key
B.Candidate Key
C.Surrogate Key
D.Unique Key
E.Alternate Key
Ans: B

12)  engine executes low level instructions generated by the DML compilier
A.DDL Analyzer
B.Query Interpreter
C.Database Engine
D.None of the above
Ans: D

13) ------------responsible to define the content, the structure, the constraints, and functions or transactions against the database
A.Transcation Manager
B.Query Analyzer
C.DBA
D.All the above
E.None of the above
Ans: C

14) In  ER model -------------denote  derived attributes
A.Double ellipse
B.Diamond
C.Reactangle
D.None of the above
Ans: D

15) Foreign Key can be null
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Ans:  A

16) All   primary keys should be super keys.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Ans: A

17) In   Relational database  Data is stored as record types and the  relationship is represented by set types
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

18) In   Hierarchical database to get to a low-level table, you start at the root and work your way down the tree until you reach your target data.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

19) Using relational model we design conceptual   database design
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

20) Conceptual data model is the source of   information   for logical design phase
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

21) Logical database design describes describes base relations, file organizations, and indexes that are used to achieve efficient access to   data.
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

22) Conceptual data modeling uses a high level data modeling concept of E-R Models
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

23) Tables are required to have at least one column
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

24) Logical data independence. Refers to the separation of the external views from the conceptual view
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

25) Duplication of data is the disadvantage of DBMS
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

26) Candidate key can have a null value
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

27) Each program maintains its own set of data. So users of one program may be unaware of potentially useful data held by other programs  this leads toDuplication of data
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

28) A traditional database stores just data – with no procedures
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

29) Simple Attribute  composed of multiple components, each with an independent existence.
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

30) Cardinality specifies how many instances of an entity relate to one instance of another entity.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

40 Top ERP Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

ERP Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if
A. the item has several children
B. there is a deep bill of materials
C. the finished products are mostly services (rather than goods)
D. there is a clearly identifiable parent
Ans: D

2. Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that
A. for any product, all components are dependent-demand items
B. the need for independent-demand items is forecasted
C. the need for dependent-demand items is calculated
D. all of the above are true
 Ans: D

3. A master production schedule specifies
A. the financial resources required for production
B. what component is to be made, and when
C. what product is to be made, and when
D. the labor hours required for production
Ans: C

4. The ______ is(are) the MRP input detailing which end items are to be produced, when they are needed, and in what quantities.
A. master production schedule
B. gross requirements
C. inventory records
D. assembly time chart
Ans: A

5. A master production schedule contains information about
A. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
B. quantities and required delivery dates of final products
C. inventory on hand for each sub-assembly
D. inventory on hand for each final product
Ans: B

6. In continuous (make-to-stock) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
A. end-items
B. modules
C. kits
D. customer orders
Ans: A

7. In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
A. end-items
B. modules
C. kits
D. customer orders
Ans: D

8.  The following table is an example of a(n)
 Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Week 5
Clothes Washer  200  100
Clothes Dryer 300 100 100  100
Upright Freezer   200 500
A. aggregate plan
B. load report
C. master production schedule
D. inventory record
Ans: C

9. The ______ is the input to Materials Requirements Planning which lists the assemblies,
subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.
A. bill of materials
B. net requirements chart
C. inventory records
D. assembly time chart
Ans: A

10. A bill of materials lists the
A. times needed to perform all phases of production
B. production schedules for all products
C. components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
D. operations required to produce an item
Ans: C

11. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of different final products is to use
A. planning bills
B. modular bills
C. phantom bills
D. overdue bills
Ans: B

12. The bill of materials contains information necessary to
A. convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the next level
B. calculate quantities on hand and on order
C. convert gross requirements into net requirements
D. place an order to replenish the item
Ans: A

13. Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills?
A. Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventorieD.
B. There is no difference between the two.
C. Both pertain to assemblies that are inventorieD.
D. Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom
bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventorieD.
Ans: D

14. Given the following bill-of-materials:
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
A. 300
B. 100
C. 200
D. 250
Ans: A

15. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
A. lower than 90%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
 Ans: D

16. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Ans: A

17. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are on hand 10 units of B and none of C, how many units of part D will be needed?
A. 3
B. 40
C. 70
D. 90
Ans: C

18. "Exploding" the bill of materials means
A. converting the bill of materials into components and raw material requirements
B. identifying the lead time of all the components
C. determining the various components' quantities that are already on hand
D. determining the net requirements for all the components
Ans: A

19. Low level coding means that
A. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure
B. it is the code for the missing items
C. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure
D. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOM's are not organized around the finished product
Ans: C

20. Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z
is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is _____ weeks.
A. 48
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
Ans: C

21. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.
A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 18
Ans: B

22. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product M. There are currently 30 of Product M on hanD. Each M requires 4 of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hanD. The gross requirements for N are
A. 150
B. 170
C. 300
D. 320
Ans: C

23. The MPS calls for 50 units of Product A and 60 ofB. There are currently 25 of Product B on hanD. Each A requires 2 of Part C; each B requires 5 ofC. There are 160 units of C available. The net requirements for C are
A. 115
B. 175
C. 240
D. 690
Ans: A

24. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product A, there are currently 60 of Product A on hanD. Each A requires 4 of Part B, there are 20 units of B available. The net requirements for B are
A. 20
B. 120
C. 180
D. 240
Ans: C

25. In MRP record calculations, the appearance of a negative value for the gross requirements of an end item in a specific time bucket
A. signals the need to purchase that end item in that period
B. implies that value was scheduled by the MPS
C. signals the need for a negative Planned Order Receipt in that period
D. is impossible
Ans: D

26. A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except
A. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
B. quantities and required delivery dates of final products
C. the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
D. inventory on hand for each final product
Ans: C

27. The number of units projected to be available at the end of each time period refers to
A. net requirements
B. scheduled receipts
C. the projected usage of the item
D. the amount projected to be on hand
Ans: D

28. Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as
A. net requirements planning
B. a time fence
C. pegging
D. Kanban
Ans: C

29. In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
A. management's attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements
B. the use of the lot-for-lot approach
C. management's marking part of the master production schedule as "not to be rescheduled"
D. the use of phantom bills of materials
Ans: A

30. One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)
A. modular bills
B. time phasing
C. time fences
D. lot sizing
Ans: C

31. A major strength of MRP is its capability
A. to minimize labor hours used in production
B. for timely and accurate replanning
C. to reduce lead times
D. to maximize production throughput
Ans: B

32. Material requirements plan specify
A. the quantities of the product families that need to be produced
B. the quantity and timing of planned order releases
C. the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
D. the costs associated with alternative plans 6
Ans: B

33. Which of the following statements is true about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
A. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned
order releases for its parent.
B. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of net requirements
for its parent(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
C. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross
requirements for its parent.
D. The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net
requirements for its parent.
Ans: B

34. Which of the following lot-sizing-techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
A. lot-for-lot
B. EOQ
C. part-period-balancing
D. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Ans: A

35. What lot sizing technique is generally preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high?
A. lot-for-lot
B. EOQ
C. part-period balancing
D. the Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Ans: A

36. For the lot-for-lot lot-sizing technique to be appropriate
A. future demand should be known for several weeks
B. setup cost should be relatively small
C. annual volume should be rather low
D. item unit cost should be relatively small
Ans: B

37. MRP II is accurately described as
A. MRP software designed for services
B. MRP with a new set of computer programs that execute on micro-computers
C. MRP augmented by other resource variables
D. usually employed to isolate manufacturing operations from other aspects of an organization
Ans: C

38. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is
A. severely limited by current MRP computer systems
B. not related to MRP
C. an advanced MRP II system that ties-in customers and suppliers
D. not currently practical
Ans:

39. The extension of MRP which extends to resources such as labor hours and machine hours, as well as to order entry, purchasing, and direct interface with customers and suppliers is
A. MRP II
B. Enterprise Resource Planning
C. the master production schedule
D. closed-loop MRP 7
Ans: B

40. Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) is
A. a transportation plan to ship materials to warehouses
B. a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network
C. a shipping plan from a central warehouse to retail warehouses
D. material requirements planning with feedback loop from distribution centers
Ans: B