60 Top SAP SD Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

SAP SD Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. The individual physical tables in the SAP Information Warehouse are called what?
A.Key figures
B.Characteristics
C.Info structures
D.Time base
E.Period units
Ans: C

2. I need to be able to fulfill a customer requirement wherein Incoterms in the sales document header is not allowed to be different from the item. Where do I tweak the system to fulfill the requirement?
A.Need to configure copying control in sales
B.Need to configure common distribution channel
C.Need to configure common division
D.Need to configure the sales document type
E.Need to configure the item category
Ans: E

3. An organizational unit facilitating differentiation between the various stocks of a material within a plant ?
A.Shipping point
B.Storage location
C.Transportation planning point
D.Shipping condition
E.Plant
Ans: B

4. In SAP, it is possible to vary transaction currency in the header and item level of the sales document
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

5) When you enter a sales order you don’t need to specify the sales area immediately. If you don’t, where does the system automatically derive the sales area?
A.Material master
B.Customer master
C.Implementation guide (IMG)
D.Customer-material info record
E.Condition record
Ans: B

6.)When you are creating a sales order, the system tries to determine the plant from several sources. When checking the customer master data, which partner function does the system check for plant determination?
A.Sold-to party
B.Ship-to party
C.Payer
D.Bill-to part
Ans: B

7.)In controlling which order types are permitted for a particular sales area, configuration is not required if all order types are permitted in all sales areas.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

8.)What part of the company is responsible for the type of shipping, the necessary shipping materials and the means of transport?
A.Sales Organization
B.Transportation planning point
C.Shipping condition
D.Shipping point
E.Warehouse
Ans: D

9)In availability check, what enterprise structure does the system use as basis?
A.Shipping point
B.Plant
C.Company code
D.Sales organization
E.Distribution channel
Ans: B

10.)In the unlikely event that your order contains different partner functions, where does the system check the information to know if the customer accepts delivery on a certain day and time?
A.Sold-to party
B.Ship-to party
C.Payer
D.Bill-to part
Ans: B

11. How is an Item Category determined in a Sales Document?
A. Order Type + Item Category Group
B. Order Type + Item Category Group + Higher Level Item Category
C. Order Type + Item Category Group + Higher Level Item Category + Usage
D. None of the above.
Ans: C

12. Which of the following are true for a Header Condition?
A. Header Conditions are applicable to the whole document
B. Header Conditions have to be entered only in Header Condition Screen
C. Header Conditions have no Access Sequence
D. All of the above
Ans: D

13. In a Business requirement the price of a material is based on the ‘Region’,  ‘Sales Org.’, ‘Distribution Channel’ . If you were to create a Condition Table for this scenario, the order in which the fields are arranged is?
A. Material, Sales Organization, Distribution Channel, Region
B. Material, Distribution Channel, Region, Sales Organization
C. Sales Organization, Distribution Channel, Region, Material
D. None of the above
Ans: C

14. If an Exclusive Indicator in an Access Sequence is activated, which of the following is true?
A. Does not allow the system to further search for condition Records if a valid Record is found
B. Will allow the system to take only the last condition Record even though there are other condition records prior to that
C. Excludes the system from carrying out pricing
D. None of the above.
Ans: A

15.  What is Credit Exposure?
A. Opens Sales Orders
B. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries
C. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries + Open Invoices
D. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries + Open Invoices + Open Items
Ans: D

16. How does the system carry out Static Credit limit check?
A. Net Document Value + Credit Exposure
B. Net Document Value + Open Items
C. Net Document Value (with horizon period) + Credit Exposure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

17. Free Goods is supported for which of the following in SAP R/3?
A. Third Party Order
B. Deliveries without reference to order
C. Make-to Order
D. None of the above
Ans: C

18. In which processes of Consignment “Transfer Order for picking” is used?
A. Consignment Fill-up
B. Consignment Issue
C. Consignment Returns
D. Consignment Pick-up
Ans: A

19. A BoM consists of items A, B and C. Which of the following is not an Alternative BoM?
A. A
B. A+B
C. A+B+C
D. A+B+C+D
Ans: C

20.  What do you observe when a BoM is entered in Item Proposal and copied to a Sales Order?
A. BoM does not explode in Item Proposal but when copied to Order it explodes
B. BoM explodes in Item Proposal first and then is copied to Order
C. BoM does not explode in neither of the cases
D. None of the above
Ans: A

21.  What are the views related to Sales and Distribution in MMR?
A. Sales Org 1, 2 and Accounting
B. Sales Org 1, 2, Sales General/Plant, and Accounting
C. Sales Org 1, 2, Sales General/Plant, Foreign Trade Export and Sales Text
D. None of the above
Ans: C

22. If a material is created for Plant X, how is the same material defined for Plant Y? What is the process called?
A. MM02 and Extending the material
B. MM01 and Extending the material
C. MM01 and Creating the material
D. None of the above
Ans: B

23. What are FERT and HAWA?
A. Finished Product and Trading Product
B. Trading Product and Finished Product
C. Finished Product and Configurable Material
D. None of the above
Ans: A

24. For Material Master Record creation the important control functions like defining screen sequence, grouping field selection functions etc are based on?
A. Material Type and Industry Sector
B. Material Type and Item Category Group
C. Industry Sector and Item Category Group
D. None of the above
Ans: A

25.  When a Customer Master is changed, are the changes reflected in the already created documents? If yes/no, what are the fields?
A. Yes and all the changes in Customer master are copied to already created order
B. Yes but only address change is copied to already created order
C. No
D. None of the above
Ans: B

26. What is WM Transfer Order?
A. Request to Transfer material from storage location to customers place
B. Request to transfer material from one storage location to another storage location
C. Request to Transfer material from one place to another place within a storage location for picking purpose
D. None of the above
Ans: C

27. What are the effects of PGI?
A. Stock levels are reduced, Billing Due list updated
B. Material and Accounting Documents created
C. Status in Delivery changed and requirements reduced or eliminated
D. All of the above
Ans: D

28.  How is a delivery document created?
A. Using One shipping point only
B. More than One shipping point can be used
C. Warehouse Number
D. None of the above
Ans: A

29. What is the relationship between Sales Organization and Company Code?
A. One Sales Organization may be assigned to many company codes
B. Many Sales Organizations may be assigned to many company codes
C. Many Sales Organization may be assigned to one company codes
D. None of the above
Ans: C

30. What is Sales Line?
A. Sales Organization + Distribution Channel + Division
B. Sales Organization + Distribution Channel
C. Sales Organization + Division
D. None of the above
Ans: B

31. Billing of partial quantity is only possible if ?
A. Item Category has Billing relevance as A
B. Item Category has Billing relevance as B
C. Item Category has Billing relevance as K
D. None of the above
Ans: C

32. To cancel a Billing Document, which of the following is true?
A. A cancellation Billing Document Type is required
B. A Billing Document cannot be cancelled
C. It is cancelled by just changing the values in A Billing Document
D. None of the above
Ans: A

33. Which of the following are True for Returnable packaging material?
A. Returnable packaging material may be stored at Customer Location but remains the property of the company
B. It is not treated as Special Stock
C. If the Customer does not return the returnable packaging material by specified time then he may be billed for the same
D. Only A and C are correct
Ans: D

34. Which of the following are true for Inter-Company Sales Processing?
A. Delivering Plant must be assigned to Selling Sales Organization
B. Internal Customer Number must be assigned to the Selling Sales Organization
C. Inter-company Billing Document Type must be assigned to Order Type
D. All of the above
Ans: D

35. Which Standard Condition Type is linked to Payment Terms?
A. MWST
B. SKTO
C. RB00
D. No Condition Type is linked to Payment Terms
Ans: B

36. If a Sales Order determines two condition types which have Condition Class as B (price),how does the system react?
A. System picks the first price invalidating the other price
B. System picks the second price invalidating previous price
C. System does not recognize any price
D. None of the above
Ans: B

37. Rebate Condition Types have the condition Class as?
A. A – Discount/Surcharge
B. B – Price
C. C – Expense Reimbursement
D. Any of the above
Ans: C

38. Which of the following tables are correct?
A. VBUK – Header status, VBUP – Item Status, VBFA – Document Flow
B. VBRK – Header Billing Data, VBRP –Item Billing Data
C. LIKP – Delivery Header Data, LIPS – Delivery Item Data
D. All of the above
Ans: D

39. Which of the following are true for an Output Type?
A. Controls Print Program, SAPScript layout, medium, partner functions
B. Standard Output Types : Order Confirmation – BA00, Invoice – RD00
C. A and B above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

40. A Returns Order may lead to either a Credit Memo or a subsequent delivery free of charge. How do we avoid credit memo if the later is used?
A. Reject the Items in the Returns Order then copy to subsequent delivery free of charge Order
B. First create a credit memo and then cancel it and create subsequent delivery free of charge Order
C. It is not possible to stop credit memo
D. None of the above
Ans: A

41. What are common Distribution Channels and common Divisions?
A. Common Distribution Channels and Common Divisions are used to maintain same data for different Distribution channels and divisions
B. Combing a distribution channels and combining divisions
C. Treating all distribution channels and all divisions as same
D. None of the above of the above
Ans: A

42. If Invoice Correction Request is to be characterized as Debit Memo, what important changes do you suggest?
A. Document Category must be L (Debit Memo Request)
B. Billing Type would be a Debit Memo (L2)
C. Both A and B above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

43. How can you prevent Purchase Orders from duplication? That is same purchase Order should not be entered again?
A. By using “Check PO Number” field in the Order Type settings
B. Using Copy Control
C. Using Incompletion Procedure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

44. A business needs the cost of free of charge sub-items in Free goods to be transferred to Main Items. How is this possible?
A. By manually adding sub-item costs to main Items
B. By activating “Cumulate Cost” for main Item Category Controls in Copy Control
C. By specifying in Item Category controls
D. None of the above
Ans: B

45.  If a Condition Exclusion is activated for a Condition Type for which Condition Supplements are also specified, how would a system react?
A. System ignores Condition Exclusion
B. System Ignores Condition Supplements
C. It is not possible to set both simultaneously
D. None of the above
Ans: A

46. What is 3 system landscape?
A. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in one server
B. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in two servers
C. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in three servers
D. None of the above
Ans: C

47. At which points in Sales and Distribution cycle the system can be set to carry out Automatic Credit Check?
A. Order level Only
B. Order and Delivery only
C. Order, Delivery and PGI
D. None of the above
Ans: C

48. What is a Delivery Group?
A. Group of delivery documents to be delivered
B. Group of Orders to be delivered together
C. It combines some or all items of an Order so as to deliver together
D. None of the above
Ans: C

49. What is the function of Strategy in Substitution reason?
A. Specifies whether a warning message is to be issued before material determination execution
B. Specifies whether the system should display the alternative items for selection
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans: B

50. In which Material Determination process is the “Material Entered” also should have material master record?
A. Material Entered need not have a material master record at all
B. Material Entered should always have a material master record
C. Only if the substitute item is displayed as sub item, material entered should have a material master record
D. None of the above
Ans: C

51. Which of the following is correct for Lean Warehouse Management System and Warehouse Management System (full fledged)?
A. In a Lean Warehouse Management System stock is maintained at Storage Location level only
B. In Warehouse Management System stock is maintained at bin levels
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above
Ans: C

52. When a new account group is created which of the configurations are correct?
A. New Account Group should be assigned to Partner Determination Procedure
B. New Account Group should be assigned to Partner Functions
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

53. A status Group in an Incompletion Procedure specifies that if a document is incomplete it should block?
A. Delivery
B. Billing
C. A or B or both
D. None of the above
Ans: C

54. How is a Pricing Procedure determined?
A. Document Pricing Procedure + Customer Pricing Procedure
B. Document Pricing Procedure + Customer Pricing Procedure + Sales Area
C. Pricing procedure is directly assigned to Order Type
D. None of the above
Ans: B

55. If the Item numbers of a document have to be copied to another document as it is, then it is configured in?
A. Document Type
B. Item Category
C. Schedule Line Category
D. Copy Control
Ans: D

56. Backward scheduling is used?
A. To determine which Shipping Point is used for delivery
B. To determine whether delivery should be carried out or not
C. To determine Material Availability Date
D. None of the above
Ans: C

57. For carrying out Availability Check which of the following acts as main switch?
A. Schedule Line Category
B. Item Category
C. Requirements Class
D. None of the above
Ans: C

58. What is a Back Order?
A. Back dated Order
B. Old Order
C. Unconfirmed Order
D. None of the above
Ans: C

59. What is MALA in Storage Location Rule?
A. Shipping Conditions + Loading Group + Delivering Plant
B. Storage Conditions + Shipping Point + Delivering Plant
C. Storage Conditions + Loading Group + Delivering Plant
D. None of the above
Ans: B

60. For Delivery Item Category, if “Relevant for Picking” is not activated then?
A. Transfer Order is not required
B. Transfer Order is mandatory
C. Material is not relevant for delivery
D. None of the above
Ans: A

61. The main difference between Contracts and Scheduling Agreements is?
A. Contracts are Outline Agreements whereas Scheduling Agreements are not
B. Contracts have schedule Lines whereas Scheduling Agreements do not
C. Contracts do not have schedule Lines whereas Scheduling Agreements have
D. None of the above
Ans: C

62. Which of the following are correct?
A. Item category + MRP Type ? Schedule Line Category
B. Item category + MRP Type ? Requirements Type
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Only A is correct
Ans: C

63. Which of the following are correct for Reports?
A. May be used as Lists to view Orders, Quotations and can also be Work List such as Deliveries which have not been billed
B. Most of the Reports are managed using a special Tool called ABAP List Viewer (ALV) which allows to sum the totals, or sequence the columns etc.
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of them are correct
Ans: C

64. If the Release order value exceeds Value Contract, how the system should respond may be controlled by?
A. Item Category
B. Document Type
C. Schedule Line Category
D. None of the above
Ans: A

65. In a third party order process where do you specify the Purchase Requisition Document Type?
A. Order Type
B. Item Category
C. Schedule Line Category
D. None of the above
Ans: C

66.  Which of the following tables are correct?
A. VBAK – Sales Header Data, VBAP – Sales  Item Data
B. VBEP – Schedule Line Data
C. KNA1 – Customer General Data, KNVV – Customer Sales Data
D. All of the above
Ans: D

67. An Account Group determines?
A. Fields, Partner Functions, One-Time Customers, Number Range
B. Sales Order Creation and Item Category Determination
C. Pricing Procedure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

68. What is a match Code?
A. Comparison key, to search for a Key based on some values of the record
B. It is a Transaction Code
C. A code used alternate to Company Code
D. None of the above
Ans: A

69. What is the relationship between Company Code and Credit Control Area?
A. One company code may be assigned to many Credit Control Area
B. Many company codes may be assigned to many Credit Control Area
C. Many company codes may be assigned to one Credit Control Area
D. None of the above
Ans: C

70. A customer buys the products from 3 Company Codes belonging to a group. How many Customer Numbers are required for this customer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: A

80 Top SAP HR Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

SAP HR Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.  There are three structures in HR, which are Enterprise Structure, Personnel Structure and Organizational Structure.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

2. The following consideration(s) should be taken into account when defining the Enterprise Structure:
A. Clients are defined at the highest level of the Enterprise Structure.
B. Company codes are defined in Financial Accounting and must be country specific and can be used to help generate default values in employee master records.
C. Personnel Areas are defined in Human Resources and are assigned to one or more Company codes and can be used in defining authorizations.
D. Personnel Subareas are defined in Human Resources and are assigned to one Personnel Area only and can be used in defining authorizations.
Ans:

3. What elements make up the Enterprise Structure?
A. Client
B. Company code
C. Personnel Area
D. Personnel Subarea
Ans: A

4. The following consideration(s) should be taken into account when defining the Personnel Structure:
A. The highest level of the Personnel Structure is the Employee Group which is country specific and can be used to default values for employee master data records.
B. Employee groups are linked to the Enterprise Structure by being assigned to the Company code.
C. An Employee Subgroup can be assigned to one or more Employee Groups and used in defining authorizations.
D. Employee Subgroup can be used to define how an employee's payroll is processeD.
Ans: D


5. Organizational Structure includes which of the following areas?
A. Payroll area
B. Company code
C. Organizational units
D. Positions
Ans: C


6. The following is true about Payroll Accounting:A. Payroll Accounting is country specifiC.
B. Payroll Accounting is NOT country specifiC.
C. Payroll Accounting does not need time evaluation.
D. Only one payroll area can be run at a time.
Ans: A

7. The Payroll Accounting area includes which functions?
A. The Payroll Accounting area ensures that all employees who are paid with the same frequency, e.g., weekly, area accounted in the same payroll run.
B. The Payroll Accounting area defines the exact dates of the payroll perioD.
C. The Payroll Accounting area can be used as a selection criteria for Time Evaluation.
D. The Payroll Accounting area can be used for authorization check.
Ans: B

8. The Organizational Key is used for which of the following?
A. To provide a link to Organizational Unit in the Personnel Planning and Development Component (PD. when integration is active.
B. To define additional authorization checks.
C.  To group administrators together in on Org Key.
D. To provide a link to the Cost Center when the integration with PD is not active.
Ans: B

9. Personnel Area has which of the following functions?
A. A factor in generating default values
B. Personnel Area executes the payroll driver.
C.  Personnel Area can be used for selection criteria for reporting.
D. Personnel Area can be used for authorization checks.
Ans: C

10. In which Infotype are an employee's Enterprise and Personnel Structure assignment stored?
A. Basic Pay (IT0008)
B. Address (IT0006)
C. Organizational Assignment (IT0001)
D. Bank Details (IT0009)
Ans: C

11. The Organizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001) is used for which of the following purposes?
A. The Organizational Assignment Infotype assigns an employee to either the Enterprise Structure or the Personnel Structure.
B. IT0001 is used to allocate to the a particular frequency, e.g., bi-weekly
C.  IT0001 is used to provide the link to the Personnel Planning and Development Component (PD., if integration is active, through the Job Key
D.  IT0001 is used to allow one ore more cost centers to be assigned to the employee
Ans: B

12. The Personnel Control Record has which of the following functions?
A. The Personnel Control Record determines the dates of the current payroll perioD.
B. . The Personnel Control Record defines retroactive accounting periods.C. The Personnel Control Record locks all master data and time data records during the payroll cycle.
D. The Personnel Control Record defines the earliest retroactive accounting period for the payroll areA.
Ans: A

13. Which of the following statements about integration between PA & PD are valid?
A. Integration between PA and PD is set by filling the field PLOGI ORGA with an X, not other setting is requireD.
B. By specifying the Position with integration between PA and PD is active, the associated Organizational Units and Jobs are automatically assigned to the Organizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001).
C. Employee Groups and Employee Subgroup can be defaulted into theOrganizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001) when integration between PA and PD is active.
D.  Personnel areas and Personnel Subareas can be defaulted into the Organizational Assignment Infotype.
Ans: A

14. Which of the following apply to Personnel Subareas?
A. Personnel Subareas defines the country grouping.
B. Personnel Subareas defines the currency and language.
C.  Personnel Subareas defines groupings for work schedules, absences and leave types.
D. Personnel Subareas defines the public holiday calendar.
Ans: B

15. Which of the following applies to a feature in SAP HR?
A. It is used to valuate wage types.
B.  It controls system processes.
C.  It controls batch processing.
D. It can be accessed by transaction code PE03.
Ans: B

16. Which of the following are groupings for Employee Subgroups?
A. Primary Wage Types
B. Personnel Calculation Rule
C.  Administrators
D. Collective Agreement Provision (CAP)
Ans: B

17. The Payroll Accounting area includes which functions?
A. The Payroll Accounting area ensures that all employees who are paid with the same frequency, e.g., weekly, area accounted in the same payroll run.
B. The Payroll Accounting area defines the exact dates of the payroll perioD.
C. . The Payroll Accounting area can be used as a selection criteria for Time Evaluation.
D. The Payroll Accounting area can be used for authorization check.
Ans: B

18. What elements make up the Enterprise Structure?
A. Client
B. Company code
C. Personnel Area
D. Personnel Subarea
Ans: A

19. The following is true about Payroll Accounting:
A. Payroll Accounting is country specifiC.
B. Payroll Accounting is NOT country specifiC.
C.  Payroll Accounting does not need time evaluation.
D. Only one payroll area can be run at a time.
Ans: A

20. Organizational Structure includes which of the following areas?
A. Payroll area
B. Company code
C. Organizational units
D. Positions
Ans: C

21. What is SAP MMC good for?
A. Starting SAP instances
B.  Viewing developer traces
C. Stopping SAP instances
D.  Deploying SAPGUI
Ans:

22. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B.  It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D.  It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans: B

23. True or False: Since the release of SQL Server 2000, database integrity checks -- and DBCC CHECKDB in particular-- are a thing of the past in SAP.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


24. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C.  Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D. All of the above
Ans: D

25. To prevent the use of common password combinations, a system can be set up to include:
A. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR40
B. Instance profile parameter "login/min_password_digits"
C.  A list of forbidden passwords in table USR04.
D. No additional configuration, as SAP only allows complex passwords
Ans:

26. After a new installation of R/3 Enterprise, the system has a temporary license. How long does this license last?
A. Four months
B. Four weeks
C.  Four days
D. Fourteen days
Ans: B

27. What is CUA?
A. It's the Control Upgrade Administration program, used during an SAP upgrade.
B. It stands for Central User Administration, where a central client manages all user accounts.
C. Both
D. Noneofthese
Ans: B

28. To prevent having to adjust output devices (e.g. print queue definitions) in every system each time they are transported from one system to another, an administrator can:
A. Set up a logical spool server by the same name in the source system and the target systems
B. Set up all printers to use "__DEFAULT" as the host printer
C. Both
D. Noneofthese
Ans: A

29. True or False? In order to read developer traces you have to go the operating system because SAP does not have a way to do this within the application.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

30. How can the logon screen be modified to include informational text, such as the company name, address, the system role, etC.?
A. Run transaction SE61, create object ZLOGIN_SCREEN_INFO and enter the desired text.
B. Ask SAP to modify the login screen for you.
C. Using a C or C++ recompile SAPGUI.exe with the new text.
D. Noneofabove
Ans: A

31. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


32. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


33. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:

34. What does transaction SPAM do?
A. It configures the system to block spam e-mail in the business workplace.
B. Itdefines and import support package queues.
C. It displays the support packages that have been imported into the system.
D. Nothing. It's not an SAP transaction.
Ans:

35. If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B. Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans: B

36. Which of the following are possible ways to display the R/3 Kernel patch of a system?
A. Run SM51 and click Release Notes
B. Run disp+work –version at the OS level
C. Run SPAM, choose Imported Support Packages and click Display
D. Run SQ01 and click Kernel Patches
Ans:

37. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C. Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D.  All of the above
Ans: D

38. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:

39. . If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B.  Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans: B

40. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B. It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D. It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans: B

41.  A Work Schedule Rule comprises of the following elements:
A.  Public Holidays
B.  Daily Work Schedules
C.  Planned Working Time
D.  Break Schedules
E.  Daily Work Schedule Variants
Ans: B,D,E

42.  The different methods for transferring employee time data to the SAP system are:
A.  Record only deviations to the work schedule

B.  Record only Substitutions
C.  Record Actual Times.
D.  Record only Absences from working time.
E.  Record exceptions to the work schedule
Ans: C,E

43.  different views in TMW?
A.  team view
B.  multi person view
C.  multi day view
D.  one day view
E.  one day view
Ans: B,C,D

44.  The following are the options available in SAP Time Management:
A.  Incentive Wages
B.  Shift Planning
C.  CATS
D.  Time Recording
E.  None of these
Ans: B,C,D

45.  What is the main switch for integration of OM with PA?
A.  PLOGI ORGA
B.  PLOGI PLOGI
C.  PLOGI PAOM
Ans: A

46.  Public Holidays can have  the following characteristics:
A.  Fixed Date
B.  Special Holidays
C.  Specific Date and Day of the week
D.  Distance to Easter
E.  Movable Holidays
Ans: C,D

47.  A is the key for which object type?
A.  cost center
B.  assigning group
C.  person
D.  position
E.  work center
Ans: E

48.  secondary Incoming wage types is ?
A.  /z
B.  /A
C.  /0
D.  /1
E.  /i
Ans: A

49.  Elements of the enterprise structure?

A.  CLIENT
B.  COMPANY CODE
C.  PERSONAL SUBAREA
D.  EMPLOYEE SUBGROUP
E.  EMPLOYEE GROUP
Ans: B,C

50.  Which feature that determine the administrator group ?
A.  ABKRS
B.  TRAIF
C.  MOLGA
D.  PERSK
E.  PINCH
Ans: E

51.  1.  SAP E-recruiting Can be used as
A.  As a standalone application

B.  As a standalone application Integrated into the backend system
C.  ERP Installation
D.  B & C
E.  A,B&C
Ans: E

52. Where is an employee's work schedule stored?
A.  in the optional working time infotype


B.  in the planned working time infotype

C.  in the normal working time infotype
D.  in the monitoring of tasks infotype
Ans: B

53. The E-recruiting solution enables you to recruite english speaking employees? ( T/F )

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: B

54. How many number of subtypes are present in Compensation Package Offer Infotype?

A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Ans: A

55. Pick the "True" statements regarding "Check List for the Global assignment Change

A.Check list items infotype is 0704
B.Check list items infotype is 0705
C.Check list items infotype is 0706
D.Check list items infotype is 0707
E.Check list items infotype is 0703
Ans: B

56. Statement A: "Business event groups serve to structure the catalog. They can contain multiple hierarchy levels."
Statement B: "Business event types carry almost all of the information relevant to the business event. They form the basic structure of the catalog.

A.A is correct and B is wrong
B.A is wrong and B is correct
C.Both A and B are wrong
D.Both A and B are correct
Ans: D

57. 360 feedback appraisals: appraisals that draw on diverse sources(supervisors, peers and self-appraisals). True or False?

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: A

58. You must start one report for the gross payroll and one for the net payroll for each payroll perioD.

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: B

59. What is assigned in the payroll status infotype(0003) to personnel numbers with errors ?

A.Status indicator
B.Correction indicator
C.Negative indicator
D.Positive indicator
Ans: B

60. Communication between time recording systems and HR time management takes place via standard interface ?

A.WAP
B.PDC
C.CATS
D.ESS
Ans: B

61. What is SAP MMC good for?
A. Starting SAP instances
B. Viewing developer traces
C. Stopping SAP instances
D. Deploying SAPGUI
Ans:  A

62. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B. It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D. It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans:  B

63. True or False: Since the release of SQL Server 2000, database integrity checks -- and DBCC CHECKDB in particular-- are a thing of the past in SAP.
A. True
B. False
Ans:B

64. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C. Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D. All of the above
Ans:  D

65. To prevent the use of common password combinations, a system can be set up to include:
A. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR40
B. Instance profile parameter "login/min_password_digits"
C. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR04.
D. No additional configuration, as SAP only allows complex passwords
Ans:  B

66. After a new installation of R/3 Enterprise, the system has a temporary license. How long does this license last?
A. Four months
B. Four weeks
C. Four days
D. Fourteen days
Ans:B

67. What is CUA?
A. It's the Control Upgrade Administration program, used during an SAP upgrade.
B. It stands for Central User Administration, where a central client manages all user accounts.
Ans:B

68. To prevent having to adjust output devices (e.g. print queue definitions) in every system each time they are transported from one system to another, an administrator can:
A. Set up a logical spool server by the same name in the source system and the target systems
B. Set up all printers to use "__DEFAULT" as the host printer
Ans:A

69. True or False? In order to read developer traces you have to go the operating system because SAP does not have a way to do this within the application.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  B

70. How can the logon screen be modified to include informational text, such as the company name, address, the system role, etC.?
A. Run transaction SE61, create object ZLOGIN_SCREEN_INFO and enter the desired text.
B. Ask SAP to modify the login screen for you.
C. Using a C or C++ recompile SAPGUI.exe with the new text.
Ans:A

71. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans:B

72. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:C

73. What does transaction SPAM do?
A. It configures the system to block spam e-mail in the business workplace.
B. It defines and import support package queues.
C. It displays the support packages that have been imported into the system.
D. Nothing. It's not an SAP transaction.
Ans:  B

74. If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B. Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans:B

75. Which of the following are possible ways to display the R/3 Kernel patch of a system?
A. Run SM51 and click Release Notes
B. Run disp+work –version at the OS level
C. Run SPAM, choose Imported Support Packages and click Display
D. Run SQ01 and click Kernel Patches
Ans:A

76. The following transactions are relevant to the data sources in an SAP BW source system.
A. RSA3
B. RSA4
C. RSA5
D. RSA6
Ans: C

77. True or False? A reference characteristic will use the SID table and master data table of the referred characteristiC.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

78. The following statements are not true about navigational attributes.
A. An attribute of an info object cannot be made navigational if the attribute-only flag on the attribute info object has been checkeD.
B. Navigational attributes can be used to create aggregates.
C. It is possible to make a display attribute to navigational in an info cube data without deleting all the data from the info cube.
D. Once an attribute is made navigational in an info cube, it is possible to change it back to a display attribute if the data has been deleted from the info cube.
Ans: D

79. True or False? It is possible to create a key figure without assigning currency or unit.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

80. The following statements are true for an info cube.
A. Each characteristic of info cube should be assigned to at least one dimension.
B. One characteristic can be assigned to more than one dimensions.
C. One dimension can have more than one characteristiC.
D. More than one characteristic can be assigned to one line item dimension.
Ans: C

65 Top SAP BI/BW Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

SAP BI/BW Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. The following transactions are relevant to the data sources in an SAP BW source system.
A. RSA3
B. RSA4
C. RSA5
D. RSA6
Ans: A,C,D

2. True or False? A reference characteristic will use the SID table and master data table of the referred characteristic.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

3. The following statements are not true about navigational attributes.
A. An attribute of an info object cannot be made navigational if the attribute-only flag on the attribute info object has been checkeD.
B. Navigational attributes can be used to create aggregates.
C. It is possible to make a display attribute to navigational in an info cube data without deleting all the data from the info cubE.
D. Once an attribute is made navigational in an info cube, it is possible to change it back to a display attribute if the data has been deleted from the info cubE.
Ans: D

4. True or False? It is possible to create a key figure without assigning currency or unit.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

5. The following statements are true for compounded info objects.
A. An info cube needs to contain all info objects of the compounded info object if it has been included in the info cubE.
B. An info object cannot be included as a compounding object if it is defined as an attribute only.
C. An info object can be included as an attribute and a compounding object simultaneously.
D. The total length of a compounded info object cannot exceed 60.
Ans: A,B,D

6. The following statements are true for an info cubE.
A. Each characteristic of info cube should be assigned to at least one dimension.
B. One characteristic can be assigned to more than one dimensions.
C. One dimension can have more than one characteristiC.
D. More than one characteristic can be assigned to one line item dimension.
Ans: A,C

7. The following statements are true for info cubes and aggregates.
A. Requests cannot be deleted if info cubes are compresseD.
B. A request cannot be deleted from an info cube if that request (is compresseD. in the aggregates.
C. Deleting a request from the cube will delete the corresponding request from the aggregate, if the aggregate has not been compresseD.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

8. The following statements are true regarding the ODS request deletion.
A. It is not possible to delete a request from ODS after the request has been activateD.
B. Deleting an (inactive) request will delete all requests that have been loaded into the ODS after this request was loadeD.
C. Deleting an active request will delete the request from the change log tablE.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: C

9. The following statements are true for aggregates.
A. An aggregate stores data of an info cube redundantly and persistently in a summarized form in the databasE.
B. An aggregate can be built on characteristics or navigational attributes from the info cubE.
C. Aggregates enable queries to access data quickly for reporting.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: A,B,C

10. True or False? If an info cube has active aggregates built on it, the new requests loaded will not be available for reporting until the rollup has been completed successfully.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

11. What is the primary purpose of having multi-dimensional data models?
A. To deliver structured information that the business user can easily navigate by using any possible combination of business terms to show the KPIs.
B. To make it easier for developers to build applications, that will be helpful for the business users.
C. To make it easier to store data in the database and avoid redundancy.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A

12. The following statements are true for partitioning.
A. If a cube has been partitioned, the E table of the info cube will be partitioned on timE.
B. The F table of the info cube is partitioned on request.
C. The PSA table is partitioned automatically with several requests on one partition.
D. It is not possible to partition the info cube after data has been loaded, unless all the data is deleted from the cubE.
E. All are correct.
Ans: E

13. The following statements are true for OLAP CACHE.
A. Query navigation states and query results are stored in the application server memory.
B. If the same query has been executed by another user the result sets can be used if the global cache is activE.
C. Reading query results from OLAP cache is faster than reading from the databasE.
D. Changing the query will invalidate the OLAP cache for that query.
E. All are correct.
Ans: E

14. The following statements are true about the communication structurE.
A. It contains all the info objects that belong to an info sourcE.
B. All the data is updated into the info cube with this structurE.
C. It is dependent on the source system.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,B

15. The following statements are untrue about ODSs.
A. It is possible to create ODSs without any data fields.
B. An ODS can have a maximum of 16 key fields.
C. Characteristics and key figures can be added as key fields in an ODS.
D. After creating and activating, an export data source is created automatically.
Ans: A,C

16. Which of the following describes a Result Set query?
A. A prequery
B. A query using flat tables (ODS object or InfoObject)
C. A nested query where the results of a first query are used as entry values for a second query
D. There is no such thing in SAP BW
E. None of the above

Ans: C

17. Which of the following is correct about Profile Generator?
A. It is a tool to automatically generate Authorization Profile
B. It is a tool existing in OLTP systems only
C. Complete the Administrator work with extra tasks to set up authorization
D. A tool that can be used by end users to modify their authorizations
E. None of the above

Ans: A

18. What do the SAP BW content extractors provide?
A. Generic extractors
B. Custom extractors
C. There is no such thing in SAP BW content
D. Data sources that can be activated for all applications
E. None of the above

Ans: D

19. Using PSA as a loading process, which of the following methodologies can be used?
A. To PSA, then to the data target
B. To PSA only
C. To data target only
D. To PSA and data target in parallel
E. None of the above

Ans: E

20. Which of the following is a supply of workbooks in SAP BW arranged according to ttopic areas?
A. An InfoSource
B. A channel
C. An InfoArea
D. An InfoCatalog
E. An InfoObject
Ans: B

21. What is the maximum number of key figures in an InfoCube?
A. 13
B. 85
C. 322
D. 233

Ans: D

22. Which of the following tools helps in the Web reporting area?
A. The Web agent
B. The front-page tool
C.The Web wizard
D. The query view

Ans: C

23. When are aggregates useful?
A. Always
B. They are useful only for key figures with aggregation SUM, MIN, or MAX
C. For reorganizations and realighnments
D. To increase the speed of loading during data update
E. None of the above

Ans: B

24. Which of the following is correct about SAP BW Statistics?
A. Data volume of the SAP BW Statistics cannot be anticipated
B. SAP BW Statistics are delivered as a part of the technical content
C. All SAP BW Statistics query objects start with OSAP
D. All SAP BW Statistics InfoObject catalogues start with OSAP
E. SAP BW Statistics is automatically activated

Ans: B

25. In FI/SL we can create a ledger based on what type of tables?
A. Aggregate tables
B. InfoCube level tables
C. Line-item level tables
D.Summarization level tables
E. Total tables

Ans: E


26. Select the correct statements about the steps executed by a change run.
A. The steps activate the new master data and hierarchy data changes.
B. All aggregates are realigned and recalculateD.
C. Aggregates containing navigational attributes are realigned and recalculated for the master data changes.
D. The steps delete the 'A' (active) records for which the 'M' (modifieD. records exist from master data tables, and makes all modified records activE.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C,D

27. Key figures that are set for exception aggregation MIN or MAX in an aggregate cause the aggregates to be completely rebuilt for each change run alignment.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

28. If special characters are not defined in transaction RSKC in BW then:
A. These characters cannot be loaded into BW at all.
B. These characters can only be loaded into text fields.
C. These characters can be loaded into attributes and texts.
D. BW won't be able to generate the SIDs for these characters because all the fields where SIDs are generated cannot be loadeD.
E. None of the abovE.
Ans: B,D

29. A change run updates the 'E' table of the aggregates while doing the alignment for changes in the master datA.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

30. Select the correct statements related to the control parameters for a data transfer in table ROIDOCPRMS in the BW source system.
A. The field MAXSIZE is the maximum number of records which can be transferred to BW in a single packet.
B. The field MAXSIZE is the size in KB which is used to calculate the number of records per data packet.
C. MAXLINES is the maximum number of records which can be transferred to BW per data loaD.
D. If the number of data records per packet exceeds MAXLINES value the extraction process fails..
Ans: B

31. Identify the differences between an Infoset and a Multiprovider.
A. Both Multiproviders and Infosets can contain all the info providers in BW.
B. Queries built on Multiproviders use 'union' and queries on Infosets use 'join' to retrieve data from different info providers.
C. Both Multiproviders and Infosets do not have data, but data is accessed from the basic info providers used in these objects.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: B,C

32. Select the correct statements about the OLAP Cache Monitor in BW.
A. The transaction for the OLAP Cache Monitor is RSRCACHE.
B. If the persistent mode is inactive then the cache is inactive and query results will not be cached in memory.
C. A 'read flag' is set in the Cache Monitor when data is read from the cachE.
D. When new data is loaded into the info provider which the query is built on, the cache for that query is invalidateD.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C,D

33. Select the correct statements about ODS settings.
A. Performance of the ODS activation improves when the BEx reporting flag is switched to off.
B. Overwriting a data record is not allowed if the 'unique' data record flag is set.
C. Data targets are updated from the ODS regardless of the ODS activation status.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,B

34. It is not possible to activate an ODS which contains a request from a full load and a Delta Initialization load of the same data sourcE.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

35. Select the correct statements regarding data deletion settings in an InfoPackagE.
A. It is possible to set an InfoPackage to delete all the data in an InfoCube during the loads.
B. Only uncompressed data can be set to be deleted from the cube in an InfoPackage during the loads.
C. Deletion settings can be done only for basic InfoCubes.
D. Data deletion settings in an InfoPackage are possible only for full loads.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

36. Select the correct statements about parallel processing in Multiproviders.
A. Multiprovider queries create one process per info provider involved and are processed parallel by default.
B. It is not possible to make Multiprovider queries run sequential.
C. Multiprovider queries create a parent process which provides a synchronization point to collect the overall result from other sub processes.
D. Parallel processing is always faster than sequential processing in Multiproviders.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

37. Select the correct statements about the ALPHA conversion routine in BW.
A. An ALPHA conversion routine is assigned to a characteristic info object automatically when it is createD.
B. An ALPHA conversion routine is used to convert characteristic values from 'external to internal' values only.
C. Conversion is done on alphabets and numeric input values.
D. An ALPHA conversion routine removes the spaces on the right side of numeric values and right aligns them.
E. The left side of the numeric input values are filled with zeros.
Ans: A,D,E

38. Select the correct statements related to navigational attributes.
A. It is better to avoid using navigational attributes from a query performance point of view.
B.If a navigational attribute is used in an aggregate, the aggregate needs to be adjusted every time there is a change in the values of this attributE.
C. An attribute included as a characteristic in the InfoCube has the same effect as being used as a navigational attribute in the cubE.
D. A navigational attribute can be made to display an attribute without removing data from the InfoCubE.
E. None of the abovE.
Ans: A,B,D

39. A 'Check for Referential Integrity' can only be possible for information sources with flexible updating.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

40. Select the correct statements about physical partitioning in BW.
A. New partitions on F table of an InfoCube are created during data loads to the InfoCubE.
B. An E fact table is created when activating an InfoCube with a number of partitions corresponding to the partition value rangE.
C. If a cube is not partitioned before populating with data, it is not possible to partition the cube without removing all the datA.
D. PSA table partitions can contain more than one request.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: E

41. Identify the statement(s) that is/are truE. A change run...
A. Activates the new Master data and Hierarchy data
B. Aggregates are realigned and recalculated
C. Always reads data from the InfoCube to realign aggregates
D. Aggregates are not affected by change run
Ans: A,B

42. Which statement(s) is/are true about Multiproviders?
A. This is a virtual Infoprovider that does not store data
B. They can contain InfoCubes, ODSs, info objects and info sets
C. More than one info provider is required to build a Multiprovider
d It is similar to joining the data tables
Ans: A,B

43. The structure of the PSA table created for an info source will bE...
A. Featuring the exact same structure as Transfer structure
B. Similar to the transfer rules
C. Similarly structured as the Communication structure
D. The same as Transfer structure, plus four more fields in the beginning
Ans: D

44. In BW, special characters are not permitted unless it has been defined using this transaction:
A. rrmx
B. rskc
C. rsa15
D. rrbs
Ans: B

45. Select the true statement(s) about info sources:
A. One info source can have more than one source system assigned to it
B. One info source can have more than one data source assigned to it provided the data sources are in different source systems
C. Communication structure is a part of an info source
D. None of the above
Ans: A,C

46. Select the statement(s) that is/are true about the data sources in a BW system:
A. If the hide field indicator is set in a data source, this field will not be transferred to BW even after replicating the data source
B. A field in a data source won't be usable unless the selection field indicator has been set in the data source
C. A field in an info package will not be visible for filtering unless the selection field has been checked in the data source
D. All of the above
Ans: A,C

47. Select the statement(s) which is/are true about the 'Control parameters for data transfer from the Source System':
A. The table used to store the control parameters is ROIDOCPRMS
B. Field max lines is the maximum number of records in a packet
C. Max Size is the maximum number of records that can be transferred to BW
D. All of the above
Ans: A

48. The indicator 'Do not condense requests into one request when activation takes place' during ODS activation applies to condensation of multiple requests into one request to store it in the active table of the ODS.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

49. Select the statement(s) which is/are not true related to flat file uploads:
A. CSV and ASCII files can be uploaded
B. The table used to store the flat file load parameters is RSADMINC
C. The transaction for setting parameters for flat file upload is RSCUSTV7
D. None of the above
Ans: C

50. Which statement(s) is/are true related to Navigational attributes vs Dimensional attributes?
A. Dimensional attributes have a performance advantage over Navigational attributes for queries
B. Change history will be available if an attribute is defined as navigational
C. History of changes is available if an attribute is included as a characteristic in the cube
D. All of the above
Ans: A,C

51. When a Dimension is created as a line item dimension in a cube, Dimensions IDs will be same as that of SIDs.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

52. Select the true statement(s) related to the start routine in the update rules:
A. All records in the data packet can be accessed
B. Variables declared in the global area is available for individual routines
C. Returncode greater than 0 will be abort the whole packet
D. None of the above
Ans: A,B,C

53. If a characteristic value has been entered in InfoCube-specific properties of an InfoCube, only these values can be loaded to the cube for that characteristiC.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

54. After any changes have been done to an info set it needs to be adjusted using transaction RSISET.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

55. Select the true statement(s) about read modes in BW:
A. Read mode determines how the OLAP processor retrieves data during query execution and navigation
B. Three different types of read modes are available
C. Can be set only at individual query level
D. None of the above
Ans: A,B

56. What are the primary reporting environments for SAP BW?
A. BEx Analyzer
B. BEx Access
C. Web browser
D. Windows Notepad
Ans: A, C

57. Which of the following types of links can be created from within the BEx Browser?
A. Folders
B. SAP transaction codes
C. Internet addresses
D. All of the above
Ans: A, C

58. True or False? You can insert your own HTML code with the Web Application Designer.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

59. What is the transaction code RSBBS to be used for?
A. Listing current BW users
B. Creating a bulletin board system for reports
C. Maintaining sender-receiver assignments
D. Reloading data into an InfoCube
Ans: C

60. Which of the following is true of the Business Explorer (BEx) Analyzer?
A. It is integrated with Microsoft Excel.
B. It allows multiple queries to be embedded into a single worksheet/workbook.
C. It can refresh queries automatically when a workbook is openeD.
D. It has protection to prevent changes to cell values.
e) All of the abovE.
Ans: E

61. Individual cell definitions can be created when a Query Definition has how many structures?
A. 0 Structures
B. 1 Structure
C. 2 Structures
D. More than 2 structures
Ans: C

62. What is RRI?
A. A really-really-interesting acronym
B. Report-report-interfacing
C. A transaction code for creating new InfoCubes
Ans: B

63. Which of the following can be shared amongst query designers within a single InfoProvider?
A. Characteristic variables
B. Global structures
C. Restricted key figures
D. Technical names of a query
Ans: A, B, C

64. True or False? The reporting agent can be used to pre-calculate Web templates.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

65. A combination of characteristics and key figures can be displayed in any desired order by:
A. Activating the download scheduler
B. Switching a query definition to tabular mode
C. Placing key figures in the rows section of a query definition
D. Using scissors and duct tape
Ans: B

66. True or False? Characteristic variables cannot be created directly from the Query Designer tool.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

67. What SAP transaction code can access the reporting agent?
A. RSA1
B. AL08
C. RSRT
D. RSREP
Ans: A, D

68. The Web Application Designer (WAD. allows which of the following to be displayed in a Web browser?
A. Query results in a tablE.
B. A corporate logo
C. Bar charts.
D. Links to other reports.
e) All of the abovE.
Ans: E

69. A query that is not ready to be shared with other users should be saved to:
A. The BEx Browser
B. Favorites
C. Roles
D. A local PC
Ans: B

70. Characteristics found in a query definition can be restricted by:
A. Opening the administrator workbench
B. Changing the query properties within the query designer
C. Double-clicking on the characteristic in the query definition
D. Creating a calculated key figure
Ans: C